HP0091 LD 123 |
Session - 128th Maine Legislature C "A", Filing Number H-762, Sponsored by
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LR 452 Item 2 |
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Bill Tracking, Additional Documents | Chamber Status |
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §1-110 by striking out all of subsection 5 (page 5, lines 11 and 12 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A section 2 in §1-201 by striking out all of subsection 46 (page 10, lines 3 and 4 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §1-308 (page 13, lines 27 to 29 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 1-308. Appeals
Appeals from all final judgments, orders and decrees of the court may be taken to the Supreme Judicial Court, sitting as the Law Court, as in other civil actions.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §1-602 by inserting at the end the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §2-106 in subsection 3 by striking out all of paragraph A (page 29, lines 30 to 32 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §2-113 by striking out all of subsection 1 (page 31, lines 2 to 10 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in Article 2 by striking out all of subpart 2 and inserting the following:
‘ SUBPART 2
PARENT-CHILD RELATIONSHIP
§ 2-115. Determination of parentage for purposes of intestate succession
Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, "parent" for purposes of intestate succession means a person who has established a parent-child relationship with the child under Article 9 or Title 19-A, chapter 61 and whose parental rights have not been terminated.
§ 2-116. Effect of a pending petition
If a petition to establish parentage under Title 19-A, chapter 61 or a petition for adoption under Article 9 is pending and has not been finally adjudicated at the time of the petitioner's death, the subject of the petition is considered a child of the petitioner for intestate succession purposes and may inherit from and through the petitioner. If the subject of the petition dies before a final adjudication of parentage is issued, the petitioner may inherit from or through the subject of the petition only if there is a final adjudication of parentage.
§ 2-117. Effect of an order granting adoption on adoptee and adoptee's former parents
An order granting an adoption divests the adoptee's former parents of all legal rights, powers, privileges, immunities, duties and obligations concerning the adoptee, including the right to inherit from or through the adoptee. An adoptee, however, may inherit from the adoptee's former parents if so provided in the adoption decree.
§ 2-118. Child born after death of parent
An individual is a parent of a child who is born after the individual's death, if the child is:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §2-208 by striking out all of subsection 2 (page 43, lines 12 to 20 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §2-403 (page 49, lines 27 to 39 and page 50, lines 1 to 3 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 2-403. Exempt property
In addition to the homestead allowance, the decedent's surviving spouse is entitled from the estate to a value, not exceeding $15,000 in excess of any security interests in the estate of tangible personal property, including, but not limited to, in household furniture, automobiles, furnishings, appliances and personal effects. If there is no surviving spouse, children of the decedent are entitled jointly to the same value; however, the decedent, by will, may exclude one or more adult children from the receipt of exempt property. If encumbered chattels are selected and the value in excess of security interests, plus that of other exempt property, is less than $15,000, or if there is not $15,000 worth of exempt property in the estate, the spouse or children are entitled to other assets of the estate, if any, to the extent necessary to make up the $15,000 value. Rights to exempt property and assets needed to make up a deficiency of exempt property have priority over all claims against the estate, except that the right to any assets to make up a deficiency of exempt property abates as necessary to permit earlier payment of homestead allowance and family allowance. These rights are in addition to any benefit or share passing to the surviving spouse or children by the decedent's will unless otherwise provided by intestate succession or by way of elective share.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §2-513 by striking out all of the first indented paragraph (page 56, lines 2 and 3 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
A contract to make a will or devise, or not to revoke a will or devise, or to die intestate, if executed after July 1, 2019, can be established only by:’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §2-705 (page 71, lines 1 to 38 and page 72, lines 1 to 18 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 2-705. Class gifts construed to accord with intestate succession; exceptions
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §2-916 (page 94, lines 30 to 34 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 2-916. Application to existing relationships
Except as otherwise provided in section 2-913, an interest in or power over property existing on July 1, 2019 as to which the time for delivering or filing a disclaimer under law superseded by this Part has not expired may be disclaimed after July 1, 2019.’
Amend the bill in Part A section 2 by striking out all of §3-604 (page 126, lines 19 to 34 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 3-604. Bond amount; security; procedure; reduction
If bond is required and the provisions of the will or order do not specify the amount, unless stated in the application or petition, the person qualifying shall file a statement under oath with the register indicating that person's best estimate of the value of the personal estate of the decedent and of the income expected from the personal and real estate during the next year, and that person shall execute and file a bond with the register, or give other suitable security, in an amount not less than the estimate. The register shall determine that the bond is duly executed by a corporate surety, or one or more individual sureties whose performance is secured by pledge of personal property, mortgage on real property or other adequate security. The register may permit the amount of the bond to be reduced by the value of assets of the estate deposited with a domestic financial institution, as defined in section 6-201, subsection 4, in a manner that prevents their unauthorized disposition. On petition of the personal representative or another interested person the court may excuse a requirement of bond, increase or reduce the amount of the bond, release sureties or permit the substitution of another bond with the same or different sureties.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §3-607 (page 127, lines 30 to 38 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 3-607. Order restraining personal representative
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §3-711 (page 136, lines 3 to 7 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 3-711. Powers of personal representatives; in general
Until termination of the personal representative's appointment, a personal representative has the same power over the title to property of the estate that an absolute owner would have, in trust however, for the benefit of the creditors and others interested in the estate. This power may be exercised without notice, hearing or order of court, except as limited by this section. The personal representative may not sell or transfer any interest in real property of the estate without giving notice at least 10 days prior to that sale or transfer to any person succeeding to an interest in that property, unless the personal representative is authorized under the will to sell or transfer real estate without this notice.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §3-804 by striking out all of subsection 1 (page 143, lines 3 to 12 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §3-804 by striking out all of subsection 4 (page 143, lines 26 to 30 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §3-806 by striking out all of subsection 3 (page 144, lines 32 to 37 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §3-916 by striking out all of subsection 12 (page 160, lines 4 to 12 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §3-1201 in subsection 1 by striking out all of paragraph A (page 164, lines 11 and 12 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §4-204 (page 179, lines 27 to 32 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 4-204. Proof of authority; bond
If no local administration or application or petition for local administration is pending in this State, a domiciliary foreign personal representative may file with a court in this State in a county in which property belonging to the decedent is located authenticated copies of the foreign personal representative's appointment, of any official bond the foreign personal representative has given and a certificate, dated within 60 days, proving the foreign personal representative's current authority.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of Article 5 and inserting the following:
‘ ARTICLE 5
UNIFORM GUARDIANSHIP AND PROTECTIVE PROCEEDINGS
PART 1
GENERAL PROVISIONS
§ 5-101. Short title
Parts 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 of this Article may be known and cited as "the Uniform Guardianship and Protective Proceedings Act."
§ 5-102. Definitions
As used in this Article, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
§ 5-103. Facility of transfer
§ 5-104. Subject matter jurisdiction
§ 5-105. Transfer of proceeding
§ 5-106. Venue
§ 5-107. Practice in court
§ 5-108. Letters of office
§ 5-109. Effect of acceptance of appointment
A guardian or conservator that accepts appointment submits personally to the jurisdiction of the court in any proceeding relating to the guardianship or conservatorship.
§ 5-110. Coguardian; coconservator
§ 5-111. Judicial appointment of successor guardian or successor conservator
§ 5-112. Effect of death, removal or resignation of guardian or conservator
§ 5-113. Notice of hearing
§ 5-114. Waiver of notice
§ 5-115. Guardian ad litem
At any stage of a proceeding under this Act, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for an individual to identify and represent the individual's best interest or perform other duties if the court determines the individual's interest otherwise would not be adequately represented. If a conflict of interest or potential conflict of interest does not exist, a guardian ad litem may be appointed to represent multiple individuals or interests. The guardian ad litem may not be the same individual as the attorney representing the respondent. The court shall state on the record the duties of the guardian ad litem and the reasons for the appointment, as well as responsibility for payment of the guardian ad litem fees.
§ 5-116. Request for notice
A person that is interested in the welfare of a respondent, individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship or individual subject to a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or conservatorship and that is not otherwise entitled to notice under this Act may file a request with the court for notice. The court shall send or deliver a copy of the request to the guardian, to the custodian if one has been appointed and to the individual who is subject to the guardianship, conservatorship or protective arrangement. The recipient of the notice may file an objection within 60 days. If an objection is filed, the court shall hold a hearing on the request. If the court approves the request, the court shall give notice of the approval to the guardian or conservator if one has been appointed or to the respondent if no guardian or conservator has been appointed. The request must include a statement showing the interest of the person making it and the address of the person or an attorney for the person to whom notice is to be given.
§ 5-117. Disclosure of bankruptcy or criminal history
(1) A felony;
(2) A crime involving dishonesty, neglect, violence or use of physical force; or
(3) Any other crime relevant to the functions the individual would assume as guardian or conservator.
§ 5-118. Multiple appointments or nominations
If a respondent or other person makes more than one appointment or nomination of a guardian or a conservator, the latest in time governs.
§ 5-119. Compensation and expenses; in general
§ 5-120. Liability of guardian or conservator for act of individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship
A guardian or conservator is not personally liable to a 3rd person for the act of an individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship solely by reason of the guardianship or conservatorship.
§ 5-121. Petition after appointment for instructions or ratification
§ 5-122. Third-party acceptance of authority of guardian or conservator
§ 5-123. Use of agent by guardian or conservator
§ 5-124. Temporary substitute guardian or conservator
§ 5-125. Registration of order; effect
§ 5-126. Grievance against guardian or conservator
(1) Removal of the guardian and appointment of a successor may be appropriate in accordance with section 5-318;
(2) Termination or modification of the guardianship may be appropriate under section 5-319;
(3) Removal of the conservator and appointment of a successor may be appropriate under section 5-430;
(4) Termination or modification of the conservatorship may be appropriate under section 5-431; and
(1) Ordering the guardian or conservator to provide to the court a report, accounting, inventory, updated plan or other information;
(2) Appointing a guardian ad litem;
(3) Appointing an attorney for the individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship; or
(4) Scheduling a hearing.
§ 5-127. Delegation by parent or guardian
This subsection applies only if the parent's or guardian's service is in support of:
The organization shall maintain records on the training and background checks of agents, including the content and dates of training and full transcripts of background checks, for a period of not less than 5 years after the minor attains 18 years of age. The organization shall make the records available to a parent or guardian executing a power of attorney under this section and to the ombudsman under Title 22, section 4087-A and any local, state or federal authority conducting an investigation involving the agent, the parent or guardian or the minor.
Without regard to whether an organization is included or excluded by the terms of this subsection, nothing in this section changes the restrictions on the unauthorized practice of law as provided in Title 4, section 807 with regard to the preparation of powers of attorney.
PART 2
GUARDIANSHIP OF MINOR
§ 5-201. Appointment and status of guardian
A person becomes a guardian of a minor by parental appointment or upon appointment by the court. The guardianship status continues until terminated, without regard to the location of the guardian or the minor. This section does not apply to permanency guardians appointed in District Court child protective proceedings under Title 22, section 4038-C. If a minor has a permanency guardian, the court may not appoint another guardian without leave of the District Court in which the child protective proceeding is pending.
§ 5-202. Parental appointment of guardian
§ 5-203. Objection by minor or others to parental appointment
Until the court has confirmed an appointee under section 5-202, a minor who is the subject of an appointment by a parent and who has attained 14 years of age, the other parent or a person other than a parent or guardian having care or custody of the minor may prevent or terminate the appointment at any time by filing a written objection in the court in which the appointing instrument is filed and giving notice of the objection to the guardian and any other persons entitled to notice of the acceptance of the appointment. An objection may be withdrawn and if withdrawn is of no effect. The objection does not preclude judicial appointment of the person selected by the parent if all other requirements for appointment, including appointment over the objection of a parent, are met. The court may treat the filing of an objection as a petition for the appointment of an emergency or interim guardian under section 5-204 and proceed accordingly.
§ 5-204. Judicial appointment of guardian; conditions for appointment
(1) The parent is currently unwilling or unable to meet the minor's needs and that will have a substantial adverse effect on the minor's well-being if the minor lives with the parent; or
(2) The parent has failed, without good cause, to maintain a parental relationship with the minor, including but not limited to failing to maintain regular contact with the minor for a length of time that evidences an intent to abandon the minor.
§ 5-205. Judicial appointment of guardian; procedure
If the court finds that receiving information from the Department of Health and Human Services may be necessary for the determination of any issue before the court, it may order a Department of Health and Human Services employee to attend the hearing and to provide information relevant to the proceeding. When receiving information by oral testimony that is confidential pursuant to Title 22, section 4008, the court shall close the proceeding and ensure that it is recorded. When receiving information contained in written or media records that is confidential pursuant to Title 22, section 4008, the court shall review those records in camera, weighing the confidentiality of such records against the necessity for counsel and the parties to have access to them, and enter an appropriate order regarding the scope and manner of access. The court, in its discretion, may take other measures necessary to preserve the confidentiality of the information received.
If one of the parents of a minor is a member of the National Guard or the Reserves of the United States Armed Forces under an order to active duty for a period of more than 30 days, a guardianship that would otherwise expire is automatically extended until 30 days after the parent is no longer under those active duty orders or until an order of the court so provides as long as the parent's service is in support of:
§ 5-206. Terms of order appointing guardian
§ 5-207. Duties of guardian
(1) The current address of the minor and each parent;
(2) The minor's health care and health needs, including any medical and mental health services the child received;
(3) The minor's educational needs and progress, including the name of the minor's school, day care or other early education program, the minor's grade level and the minor's educational achievements;
(4) Contact between the minor and the minor's parents, including the frequency and duration of the contact and whether it was supervised;
(5) How the parents have been involved in decision making for the minor;
(6) Whether the parents have provided any financial support for the minor;
(7) How the guardian has carried out the guardian's responsibilities and duties under the order of appointment;
(8) An accounting of any funds received on the minor's behalf;
(9) The minor's strengths, challenges and any other areas of concern; and
(10) Recommendations with supporting reasons as to whether the guardianship order should be continued, modified or terminated.
§ 5-208. Powers of guardian
§ 5-209. Rights and immunities of guardian
§ 5-210. Modification or termination of guardianship; other proceedings after appointment
§ 5-211. Transitional arrangement for minors
In issuing, modifying or terminating an order of guardianship for a minor, the court may enter an order providing for transitional arrangements for the minor if the court determines that such arrangements will assist the minor with a transition of custody and are in the best interest of the minor. Orders providing for transitional arrangements may include, but are not limited to, rights of contact, housing, counseling or rehabilitation. In determining the best interest of the minor, a court may consider the minor's relationship with the guardian and need for stability.
§ 5-212. Appointment of guardian ad litem for minor
In any proceeding under this Part, including for issuing, modifying or terminating an order of guardianship for a minor, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor. The appointment may be made at any time, but the court shall make every effort to make the appointment as soon as possible after the commencement of the proceeding. The court shall follow the requirements of section 1-111 and other applicable law or court rules in making the appointment.
PART 3
GUARDIANSHIP OF ADULT
§ 5-301. Basis for appointment of guardian for adult
(1) The respondent is unable to receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions, even with appropriate supportive services, technological assistance or supported decision making;
(2) The respondent's identified needs cannot be met by a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive alternatives; and
(3) The appointment is necessary or desirable as a means of enabling the respondent to meet essential requirements for physical health, safety or self-care; or
§ 5-302. Petition for appointment of guardian for adult
(1) Spouse or domestic partner or, if the respondent has none, any adult with whom the respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than 6 months in the 12-month period before the filing of the petition;
(2) Adult children or, if the respondent has none, each parent and adult sibling of the respondent or, if the respondent has none, at least one adult nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable diligence; and
(3) Adult stepchildren whom the respondent actively parented during the stepchildren's minor years and with whom the respondent had an ongoing relationship within 2 years before the filing of the petition;
(1) A person responsible for care of the respondent;
(2) Any attorney currently representing the respondent;
(3) The representative payee appointed by the United States Social Security Administration for the respondent;
(4) A guardian or conservator acting for the respondent in this State or in another jurisdiction;
(5) A trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the respondent is a beneficiary;
(6) The United States Department of Veterans Affairs fiduciary for the respondent;
(7) An agent designated under a power of attorney for health care in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(8) An agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(9) A person nominated as guardian by the respondent;
(10) A person nominated as guardian by the respondent's parent, spouse or domestic partner in a will or other signed record;
(11) A proposed guardian and the reason the proposed guardian should be selected; and
(12) A person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with decision making within the 6 months before the filing of the petition;
(1) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
(2) Any protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive alternatives for meeting the respondent's alleged need that have been considered or implemented;
(3) If no protective arrangement or other less restrictive alternatives have been considered or implemented, the reason they have not been considered or implemented; and
(4) The reason a protective arrangement or other less restrictive alternatives are insufficient to meet the respondent's alleged need;
§ 5-303. Notice and hearing
§ 5-304. Appointment of visitor
§ 5-305. Appointment and role of attorney for adult
§ 5-306. Professional evaluation
§ 5-307. Attendance and rights at hearing
§ 5-308. Confidentiality of records
(1) The petition for guardianship is dismissed; or
(2) The guardianship is terminated.
§ 5-309. Who may be guardian of adult; priorities
§ 5-310. Order of appointment
(1) The power to manage the care of the adult subject to guardianship;
(2) The power to make decisions about where the adult subject to guardianship lives;
(3) The power to make major medical decisions on behalf of the adult subject to guardianship;
(4) Any power that requires court approval under section 5-315; or
(5) Substantially all powers of the guardian.
§ 5-311. Notice of order of appointment; rights
A guardian appointed under section 5-309 shall give to the adult subject to guardianship and to all other persons given notice under section 5-303 a copy of the order of appointment, together with a notice of the right to request termination or modification. The order and notice must be given not later than 14 days after the appointment.
§ 5-312. Emergency guardian
(1) The respondent and the respondent's spouse, parents, adult children and any domestic partner known to the court;
(2) Any person who is serving as guardian or conservator or who has care and custody of the respondent; and
(3) In case no other person is notified under subparagraph (1), at least one of the closest adult relatives of the respondent or, if there are none, an adult friend, if any can be found.
(1) The temporary authority that the petitioner is requesting;
(2) The location and telephone number of the court in which the petition is being filed; and
(3) The name of the petitioner and the intended date of filing.
(1) Giving notice would place the respondent at substantial risk of abuse, neglect or exploitation;
(2) Notice, if provided, would not be effective; or
(3) The court determines that there is good cause not to provide notice.
§ 5-313. Duties of guardian for adult
§ 5-314. Powers of guardian for adult
(1) The establishment or move is set forth in the guardian's plan;
(2) The court authorizes the establishment or move; or
(3) Notice of the establishment or move is given at least 14 days before the establishment or move to the adult subject to guardianship and all persons entitled to the notice under section 5-310, subsection 5 or a subsequent order and no objection has been filed;
(1) The action is specifically set forth in the guardian's plan;
(2) The court authorizes the action by specific order; or
(3) Notice of the action is given at least 14 days before the action to the adult subject to guardianship and all persons entitled to the notice under section 5-310, subsection 5 or a subsequent order and no objection has been filed.
(1) The risks and benefits of treatment options; and
(2) The current and previous wishes and values of the adult, if known or reasonably ascertainable by the guardian.
§ 5-315. Special limitations on guardian's power
(1) For a period of not more than 7 business days if the person has a family or preexisting social relationship with the adult; or
(2) For a period of not more than 60 days if the person does not have a family or preexisting social relationship with the adult.
§ 5-316. Guardian's plan
§ 5-317. Guardian's report; monitoring of guardianship
§ 5-318. Removal of guardian for adult; appointment of successor
§ 5-319. Termination or modification of guardianship for adult
PART 4
CONSERVATORSHIP
§ 5-401. Basis for appointment of conservator
(1) If the minor has a parent, the court gives weight to any recommendation of the minor's parent whether an appointment is in the best interest of the minor; and
(2) Either:
(a) The minor has or may have financial affairs that may be put at unreasonable risk or hindered because of the minor's age; or
(b) Appointment is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide money needed for the support, care, education, health or welfare of the minor.
(1) Of a limitation in the ability to receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions even with the use of appropriate supportive services, technological assistance and supported decision making; or
(2) The adult is missing, detained or unable to return to the United States;
(1) Avoid harm to the adult or significant dissipation of the property of the adult; or
(2) Obtain or provide money needed for the support, care, education, health or welfare of the adult, or of an individual entitled to the adult's support, and protection is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide money for the purpose; and
§ 5-402. Petition for appointment of conservator
(1) Spouse or domestic partner or, if the respondent has none, any adult with whom the respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than 6 months in the 12-month period before the filing of the petition;
(2) Adult children or, if the respondent has none, each parent and adult sibling of the respondent or, if the respondent has none, at least one adult nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable diligence; and
(3) Adult stepchildren whom the respondent actively parented during the stepchildren's minor years and with whom the respondent had an ongoing relationship within 2 years before filing of the petition;
(1) A person responsible for the care or custody of the respondent;
(2) Any attorney currently representing the respondent;
(3) The representative payee appointed by the United States Social Security Administration for the respondent;
(4) A guardian or conservator acting for a respondent in this State or another jurisdiction;
(5) A trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the respondent is a beneficiary;
(6) The United States Department of Veterans Affairs fiduciary for the respondent;
(7) An agent designated under a power of attorney for health care or an advance health directive in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(8) An agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(9) A person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with decision making within the 6 months before the filing of the petition;
(10) Any proposed conservator, including a person nominated by the respondent if the respondent is 14 years of age or older; and
(11) If the individual for whom a conservator is sought is a minor:
(a) An adult with whom the minor resides if not otherwise listed; and
(b) Any person not otherwise listed that had the care or custody of the minor for 60 or more days during the 2 years preceding the filing of the petition or any person that had the primary care or custody of the minor for at least 730 days during the 5 years preceding the filing of the petition;
(1) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
(2) If the petition alleges the respondent is missing, detained or unable to return to the United States, the relevant circumstances, including the time and nature of the disappearance or detention and any search or inquiry concerning the respondent's whereabouts;
(3) Any protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive alternatives for meeting the respondent's alleged need which have been considered or implemented;
(4) If no protective arrangement or other less restrictive alternatives have been considered or implemented, the reason they have not been considered or implemented; and
(5) The reason a protective arrangement or other less restrictive alternatives are insufficient to meet the respondent's need;
§ 5-403. Notice and hearing
§ 5-404. Petition for protective order
(1) Name, address and telephone number of the petitioner;
(2) Name, address and telephone number of the principal;
(3) Name, address and telephone number of the person with actual or apparent authority to manage the property or affairs of the principal;
(4) Facts concerning the extent and nature of the principal's inability to manage the principal's property or affairs effectively and any facts supporting an allegation that an emergency exists;
(5) Facts concerning the extent and nature of the actual or apparent agent's lack of management of the principal's property or affairs. If applicable, facts describing how the petitioner has already been adversely affected by the lack of management of the principal's property or affairs; and
(6) Names, addresses and relationships of all persons who are required to receive notice of the petition.
§ 5-405. Appointment and role of visitor
(1) Regarding the appropriateness of conservatorship, or whether a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive alternatives for meeting the respondent's needs are available;
(2) If a conservatorship is recommended, whether it should be full or limited; and
(3) If a limited conservatorship is recommended, the powers to be granted to the conservator and the property that should be placed under the conservator's control;
§ 5-406. Appointment and role of attorney
§ 5-407. Professional evaluation
§ 5-408. Attendance and rights at hearing
§ 5-409. Confidentiality of records
(1) The petition for conservatorship is dismissed; or
(2) The conservatorship is terminated.
§ 5-410. Who may be conservator; priorities
§ 5-411. Order of appointment
§ 5-412. Notice of order of appointment; rights
§ 5-413. Emergency conservator
(1) The respondent and the respondent's spouse, parents, adult children and any domestic partner known to the court;
(2) Any person who is serving as guardian or conservator or who has care and custody of the respondent; and
(3) In case no other person is notified under subparagraph (1), at least one of the closest adult relatives of the respondent or, if there are none, an adult friend, if any can be found.
(1) The temporary authority that the petitioner is requesting;
(2) The location and telephone number of the court in which the petition is being filed; and
(3) The name of the petitioner and the intended date of filing.
(1) Giving notice would place the respondent at substantial risk of abuse, neglect or exploitation;
(2) Notice, if provided, would not be effective; or
(3) The court determines that there is good cause not to provide notice.
§ 5-414. Powers of conservator requiring court approval
§ 5-415. Petition for order subsequent to appointment
An individual subject to conservatorship or a person interested in the welfare of the individual may file a petition in the court for an order:
§ 5-416. Bond or alternative asset-protection arrangement
§ 5-417. Terms and requirements of bond
§ 5-418. Duties of conservator
§ 5-419. Conservator's plan
§ 5-420. Inventory; records
§ 5-421. Administrative powers of conservator not requiring court approval
(1) To the guardian of the distributee;
(2) To a distributee's custodian under the Maine Uniform Transfers to Minors Act or custodial trustee under the Uniform Custodial Trust Act of any state; or
(3) If there is no guardian, custodian or custodial trustee, to a relative or other person having physical custody of the distributee;
§ 5-422. Distribution from conservatorship estate
Except as otherwise provided in section 5-414 or qualified or limited in the court's order of appointment and stated in the letters of office, and unless contrary to a conservator's plan filed under section 5-419, a conservator may expend or distribute income or principal of the conservatorship estate without specific court authorization or confirmation for the support, care, education, health or welfare of the individual subject to conservatorship or an individual who is in fact dependent on the individual subject to conservatorship, including the payment of child or spousal support, in accordance with the following rules.
§ 5-423. Conservator's report and accounting; monitoring
§ 5-424. Attempted transfer of property by individual subject to conservatorship
§ 5-425. Transaction involving conflict of interest
A transaction involving a conservatorship estate that is affected by a substantial conflict between the conservator's fiduciary duties and personal interests is voidable unless the transaction is authorized by the court by specific order after notice to all persons entitled to notice under section 5-411, subsection 5 or a subsequent order. A transaction affected by a substantial conflict between fiduciary duties and personal interests includes a sale, encumbrance or other transaction involving the conservatorship estate entered into by the conservator, an individual with whom the conservator resides, the spouse, domestic partner, descendant, sibling, agent or attorney of the conservator, or a corporation or other enterprise in which the conservator has a substantial beneficial interest.
§ 5-426. Protection of person dealing with conservator
§ 5-427. Death of individual subject to conservatorship
§ 5-428. Presentation and allowance of claim
§ 5-429. Personal liability of conservator
§ 5-430. Removal of conservator; appointment of successor
§ 5-431. Termination or modification of conservatorship
PART 5
OTHER PROTECTIVE ARRANGEMENTS
§ 5-501. Authority for protective arrangements
§ 5-502. Basis for protective arrangements instead of guardianship for adult
(1) One or more particular medical treatments or refusals of particular medical treatments;
(2) A move to a specified place of dwelling; or
(3) Visitation or supervised visitation between the respondent and another person;
§ 5-503. Basis for protective arrangements instead of conservatorship for adult or minor
(1) The respondent has property likely to be wasted or dissipated unless management is provided; or
(2) The order under subsection 3 is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide money needed for the support, care, education, health or welfare of the adult or an individual who is entitled to the respondent's support and protection; and
(1) An action to establish eligibility for benefits;
(2) Payment, delivery, deposit or retention of funds or property;
(3) Sale, mortgage, lease or other transfer of property;
(4) Purchase of an annuity;
(5) Entry into a contractual relationship, including a contract to provide for personal care, supportive services, education, training or employment;
(6) Addition to or establishment of a trust;
(7) Ratification or invalidation of a contract, trust, will or other transaction, including a transaction related to the property or business affairs of the respondent; or
(8) Settlement of a claim; or
§ 5-504. Petition
(1) Spouse or domestic partner or, if the respondent has none, any adult with whom the respondent has shared household responsibilities for more than 6 months in the 12-month period before the filing of the petition;
(2) Adult children or, if the respondent has none, each parent and adult sibling of the respondent or, if the respondent has none, at least one adult nearest in kinship to the respondent who can be found with reasonable diligence; and
(3) Adult stepchildren whom the respondent actively parented during the stepchildren's minor years and with whom the respondent had an ongoing relationship within 2 years before the filing of the petition;
(1) A person responsible for care or custody of the respondent;
(2) Any attorney currently representing the respondent;
(3) The representative payee appointed by the United States Social Security Administration for the respondent;
(4) A guardian or conservator acting for the respondent in this State or in another jurisdiction;
(5) A trustee or custodian of a trust or custodianship of which the respondent is a beneficiary;
(6) The United States Department of Veterans Affairs fiduciary for the respondent;
(7) An agent designated under a power of attorney for health care in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(8) An agent designated under a power of attorney for finances in which the respondent is identified as the principal;
(9) A person nominated as guardian or conservator by the respondent;
(10) A person nominated as guardian by the respondent's parent or spouse or domestic partner in a will or other signed record;
(11) A proposed guardian and the reason the proposed guardian should be selected;
(12) A person known to have routinely assisted the respondent with decision making within the 6 months before the filing of the petition; and
(13) If the respondent is a minor:
(a) An adult with whom the respondent resides if not otherwise listed; and
(b) Any person not otherwise listed that had primary care or custody of the respondent for 60 or more days during the 2 years immediately preceding the filing of the petition or any person that had primary care or custody of the respondent for at least 730 days during the 5 years immediately preceding the filing of the petition;
(1) The nature and extent of the respondent's alleged need;
(2) Any less restrictive alternatives for meeting the respondent's alleged need that have been considered or implemented and, if there are none, the reason they have not been considered or implemented; and
(3) The reason other less restrictive alternatives are insufficient to meet the respondent's alleged need;
§ 5-505. Notice and hearing
§ 5-506. Appointment of visitor
§ 5-507. Appointment and role of attorney
§ 5-508. Professional evaluation
§ 5-509. Attendance and rights at hearing
§ 5-510. Notice of order
The court shall give notice of an order under this Part to the individual who is the subject of the protective arrangements instead of guardianship or conservatorship, a person whose access to the respondent is restricted by the order and any other person as the court determines.
§ 5-511. Confidentiality of records
(1) The proceeding is dismissed;
(2) The protective arrangement is no longer in effect; or
(3) Any act authorized by the order granting the protective arrangement has been completed.
PART 6
UNIFORM ADULT GUARDIANSHIP AND PROTECTIVE PROCEEDINGS JURISDICTION ACT
SUBPART 1
GENERAL PROVISIONS
§ 5-601. Short title
This Part may be known and cited as "the Uniform Adult Guardianship and Protective Proceedings Jurisdiction Act."
§ 5-602. Definitions
As used in this Part, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
§ 5-603. International application of Part
A court of this State may treat a foreign country as if it were a state for the purpose of applying this Part.
§ 5-604. Communication between courts
§ 5-605. Cooperation between courts
§ 5-606. Taking testimony in another state
SUBPART 2
JURISDICTION
§ 5-621. Definitions; significant-connection factors
§ 5-622. Exclusive basis
This subpart provides the exclusive jurisdictional basis for a court of this State to appoint a guardian or issue a protective order for an adult.
§ 5-623. Jurisdiction
A court of this State has jurisdiction to appoint a guardian or issue a protective order for a respondent if:
(1) A petition for an appointment or order is not filed in the respondent's home state;
(2) An objection to the court's jurisdiction is not filed by a person required to be notified of the proceeding; and
(3) The court in this State concludes that it is an appropriate forum under the factors set forth in section 5-626;
§ 5-624. Special jurisdiction
§ 5-625. Exclusive and continuing jurisdiction
Except as otherwise provided in section 5-624, a court that has appointed a guardian or issued a protective order consistent with this Part has exclusive and continuing jurisdiction over the proceeding until it is terminated by the court or the appointment or order expires by its own terms.
§ 5-626. Appropriate forum
§ 5-627. Jurisdiction declined by reason of conduct
(1) The extent to which the respondent and all persons required to be notified of the proceedings have acquiesced in the exercise of the court's jurisdiction;
(2) Whether it is a more appropriate forum than the court of any other state under the factors set forth in section 5-626, subsection 3; and
(3) Whether the court of any other state would have jurisdiction under factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional standards of section 5-623.
§ 5-628. Notice of proceeding
If a petition for the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a protective order is brought in this State and this State was not the respondent's home state on the date the petition was filed, in addition to complying with the notice requirements of this State, notice of the petition must be given to those persons who would be entitled to notice of the petition if a proceeding were brought in the respondent's home state. The notice must be given in the same manner as notice is required to be given in this State.
§ 5-629. Proceedings in more than one state
Except for a petition for the appointment of a guardian in an emergency or issuance of a protective order limited to property located in this State under section 5-624, subsection 1, paragraph A or B, if a petition for the appointment of a guardian or issuance of a protective order is filed in this State and in another state and neither petition has been dismissed or withdrawn, the following apply.
SUBPART 3
TRANSFER OF GUARDIANSHIP OR CONSERVATORSHIP
§ 5-631. Transfer of guardianship or conservatorship to another state
§ 5-632. Accepting guardianship or conservatorship transferred from another state
SUBPART 4
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
§ 5-641. Uniformity of application and construction
In applying and construing this Part, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.
§ 5-642. Relation to Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act
This Part modifies, limits and supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 United States Code, Section 7001 et seq., but does not modify, limit or supersede 15 United States Code, Section 7001(c) or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in 15 United States Code, Section 7003(b).
§ 5-643. Transitional provisions
PART 7
PUBLIC GUARDIAN AND CONSERVATOR
§ 5-701. Public guardians and conservators; general
§ 5-702. Priority of private guardian or conservator
A public guardian or conservator may not be appointed if the court determines that a suitable private guardian or conservator is available and willing to assume the responsibilities of a guardian or conservator.
§ 5-703. Exclusiveness of public guardian or conservator
When the court has appointed a public guardian or conservator under this Part, no coguardian or coconservator may be appointed for the same individual subject to guardianship or protected person during the continuation of the public guardianship or public conservatorship.
§ 5-704. Nomination of public guardian or conservator
§ 5-705. Acceptance by public guardian or conservator; plan
Prior to the appointment of a public guardian or conservator, the appropriate agency nominated shall accept or reject the nomination in writing within 30 days of its receipt of notification that it has been nominated and if the nomination is accepted shall file a detailed plan that, as relevant, must include but is not limited to the type of proposed living arrangement for the individual subject to guardianship, how the individual's financial needs will be met, how the individual's medical and other remedial needs will be met, how the individual's social needs will be met and a plan for the individual's continuing contact with relatives and friends, as well as a plan for the management of the individual's or protected person's estate in the case of a public conservatorship.
§ 5-706. Officials authorized to act as public guardian or conservator
§ 5-707. Duties and powers of a public guardian or conservator
A public guardian or conservator has the same powers, rights and duties respecting the individual subject to guardianship or the protected person as provided for guardians and conservators by the other Parts of this Article except as otherwise specifically provided in this Part, including the following particular provisions.
§ 5-708. No change in rights to services
The appointment of a public guardian or conservator in no way enlarges or diminishes the individual subject to guardianship's or protected person's right to services made available to all persons in need of service or protection in the State except for the provision of guardianship or conservatorship services as provided under this Article.
§ 5-709. No change in powers and duties of agency heads and trustees
Nothing in this Article abrogates any other powers or duties vested by law in the head of any public institution, or vested by the settlor of a trust in the trustee thereof, for the benefit of any individual subject to guardianship or protected person for whom the public guardian or conservator is appointed.
§ 5-710. Bond
The public guardian or conservator is not required to file bonds in individual guardianships or conservatorships, but shall give a surety bond for the joint benefit of the individuals subject to guardianship or protected persons placed under the responsibility of the public guardian or conservator and the State, with a surety company or companies authorized to do business within the State, in an amount not less than the total value of all assets held by the public guardian or conservator, which amount must be computed at the end of each state fiscal year and approved by the Probate Court for Kennebec County. At no time may the bond of each of the public guardians or conservators be less than $500 respectively.
§ 5-711. Compensation
§ 5-712. Individuals subject to guardianship; guardian ad litem costs
(1) A guardian ad litem is appointed under the provisions of this Code; or
(2) A court incurs special costs in a proceeding concerning the person; and
(1) Is or has been a client of the Department of Health and Human Services; or
(2) Has received services from a worker from the Department of Health and Human Services.
§ 5-713. Limited public guardianships
The provisions of Parts 2 and 3 regarding limited guardianships apply to the appointment of public guardians.
PART 8
UNIFORM HEALTH CARE DECISIONS ACT
§ 5-801. Short title
This Part may be known and cited as "the Uniform Health Care Decisions Act."
§ 5-802. Definitions
As used in this Part, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
§ 5-803. Advance health care directives
§ 5-804. Revocation of advance health care directive
§ 5-805. Optional form
The following form may, but need not, be used to create an advance health care directive. The other sections of this Part govern the effect of this or any other writing used to create an advance health care directive. An individual with capacity may complete or modify all or any part of the following form.
You have the right to give instructions about your own health care. You also have the right to name someone else to make health care decisions for you. This form lets you do either or both of these things. It also lets you express your wishes regarding donation of organs and the designation of your primary physician. If you use this form, you may complete or modify all or any part of it. You are free to use a different form.
Part 1 of this form is a power of attorney for health care. Part 1 lets you name another individual as agent to make health care decisions for you if you become incapable of making your own decisions or if you want someone else to make those decisions for you now even though you are still capable. You may also name an alternate agent to act for you if your first choice is not willing, able or reasonably available to make decisions for you. Unless related to you, your agent may not be an owner, operator or employee of a residential long-term health care institution at which you are receiving care.
Unless the form you sign limits the authority of your agent, your agent may make all health care decisions for you. This form has a place for you to limit the authority of your agent. You need not limit the authority of your agent if you wish to rely on your agent for all health care decisions that may have to be made. If you choose not to limit the authority of your agent, your agent will have the right to:
(1) Consent or refuse consent to any care, treatment, service or procedure to maintain, diagnose or otherwise affect a physical or mental condition;
(2) Select or discharge health care providers and institutions;
(3) Approve or disapprove diagnostic tests, surgical procedures, programs of medication and orders not to resuscitate; and
(4) Direct the provision, withholding or withdrawal of artificial nutrition and hydration and all other forms of health care, including life-sustaining treatment.
Part 2 of this form lets you give specific instructions about any aspect of your health care. Choices are provided for you to express your wishes regarding the provision, withholding or withdrawal of treatment to keep you alive, including the provision of artificial nutrition and hydration, as well as the provision of pain relief. Space is also provided for you to add to the choices you have made or for you to write out any additional wishes.
Part 3 of this form lets you express an intention to donate your bodily organs and tissues following your death.
Part 4 of this form lets you designate a physician to have primary responsibility for your health care.
After completing this form, sign and date the form at the end. You must have 2 other individuals sign as witnesses. Give a copy of the signed and completed form to your physician, to any other health care providers you may have, to any health care institution at which you are receiving care and to any health care agents you have named. You should talk to the person you have named as agent to make sure that he or she understands your wishes and is willing to take the responsibility.
You have the right to revoke this advance health care directive or replace this form at any time.
(1) DESIGNATION OF AGENT: I designate the following individual as my agent to make health care decisions for me:
OPTIONAL: If I revoke my agent's authority or if my agent is not willing, able or reasonably available to make a health care decision for me, I designate as my first alternate agent:
OPTIONAL: If I revoke the authority of my agent and first alternate agent or if neither is willing, able or reasonably available to make a health care decision for me, I designate as my second alternate agent:
(2) AGENT'S AUTHORITY: My agent is authorized to make all health care decisions for me, including decisions to provide, withhold or withdraw artificial nutrition and hydration and all other forms of health care to keep me alive, except as I state here:
(3) WHEN AGENT'S AUTHORITY BECOMES EFFECTIVE: My agent's authority becomes effective when my primary physician determines that I am unable to make my own health care decisions unless I mark the following box. If I mark this box [ ], my agent's authority to make health care decisions for me takes effect immediately.
(4) AGENT'S OBLIGATION: My agent shall make health care decisions for me in accordance with this power of attorney for health care, any instructions I give in Part 2 of this form and my other wishes to the extent known to my agent. To the extent my wishes are unknown, my agent shall make health care decisions for me in accordance with what my agent determines to be in my best interest. In determining my best interest, my agent shall consider my personal values to the extent known to my agent.
(5) NOMINATION OF GUARDIAN: If a guardian of my person needs to be appointed for me by a court, I nominate the agent designated in this form. If that agent is not willing, able or reasonably available to act as guardian, I nominate the alternate agents whom I have named, in the order designated.
If you are satisfied to allow your agent to determine what is best for you in making end-of-life decisions, you need not fill out this part of the form. If you do fill out this part of the form, you may strike any wording you do not want.
(6) END-OF-LIFE DECISIONS: I direct that my health care providers and others involved in my care provide, withhold or withdraw treatment in accordance with the choice I have marked below:
[ ] (a) Choice Not To Prolong Life
I do not want my life to be prolonged if (i) I have an incurable and irreversible condition that will result in my death within a relatively short time, (ii) I become unconscious and, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty, I will not regain consciousness or (iii) the likely risks and burdens of treatment would outweigh the expected benefits, OR
[ ] (b) Choice To Prolong Life
I want my life to be prolonged as long as possible within the limits of generally accepted health care standards.
(7) ARTIFICIAL NUTRITION AND HYDRATION: Artificial nutrition and hydration must be provided, withheld or withdrawn in accordance with the choice I have made in paragraph (6) unless I mark the following box. If I mark this box [ ], artificial nutrition and hydration must be provided regardless of my condition and regardless of the choice I have made in paragraph (6).
(8) RELIEF FROM PAIN: Except as I state in the following space, I direct that treatment for alleviation of pain or discomfort be provided at all times, even if it hastens my death:
(9) OTHER WISHES: (If you do not agree with any of the optional choices above and wish to write your own, or if you wish to add to the instructions you have given above, you may do so here.) I direct that:
(10) UPON MY DEATH: (mark applicable box)
[ ] (a) I give any needed organs, tissues or parts, OR
[ ] (b) I give the following organs, tissues or parts only:
(c) My gift is for the following purposes: (strike any of the following you do not want)
(11) I designate the following physician as my primary physician:
OPTIONAL: If the physician I have designated above is not willing, able or reasonably available to act as my primary physician, I designate the following physician as my primary physician:
(12) EFFECT OF COPY: A copy of this form has the same effect as the original.
(13) SIGNATURES: Sign and date the form here:
SIGNATURES OF WITNESSES:
§ 5-806. Decisions by surrogate
A surrogate also is authorized to make any other health care decision for a patient who is an adult or emancipated minor if the patient has been determined by the primary physician to lack capacity and no agent or guardian exists, except that a surrogate may not deny surgery, procedures or other interventions that are lifesaving and medically necessary.
A medically necessary procedure is one providing the most patient-appropriate intervention or procedure that can be safely and effectively given.
§ 5-807. Decisions by guardian
§ 5-808. Obligations of health care provider
§ 5-809. Health care information
Unless otherwise specified in an advance health care directive, a person then authorized to make health care decisions for a patient has the same rights as the patient to request, receive, examine, copy and consent to the disclosure of medical or any other health care information.
§ 5-810. Immunities
§ 5-811. Statutory damages
§ 5-812. Capacity
§ 5-813. Effect of copy
A copy of a written advance health care directive, revocation of an advance health care directive or designation or disqualification of a surrogate has the same effect as the original.
§ 5-814. Effect of Part
§ 5-815. Judicial relief
On petition of a patient, the patient's agent, guardian or surrogate, a health care or social services provider or health care institution involved with the patient's care, a state agency mandated to provide adult protective services pursuant to Title 22, chapter 958-A, or an adult relative or adult friend of the patient, the court may enjoin or direct a health care decision or other equitable relief.
§ 5-816. Uniformity of application and construction
This Part must be applied and construed to effectuate its general purpose to make uniform the law with respect to the subject matter of this Part among states enacting it.
§ 5-817. Military advanced medical directives
A military advanced medical directive executed in accordance with 10 United States Code, Section 1044c is valid in this State.
PART 9
MAINE UNIFORM POWER OF ATTORNEY ACT
SUBPART 1
GENERAL PROVISIONS AND DEFINITIONS
§ 5-901. Short title
This Part may be known and cited as "the Maine Uniform Power of Attorney Act."
§ 5-902. Definitions
As used in this Part, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
(1) Missing;
(2) Detained, including incarcerated in a penal system; or
(3) Outside the United States and unable to return.
§ 5-903. Applicability
This Part applies to all powers of attorney except:
§ 5-904. Power of attorney is durable
A power of attorney created under this Part is durable unless it expressly provides that it is terminated by the incapacity of the principal.
§ 5-905. Execution of power of attorney; notices
"Notice to the Principal: As the "Principal" you are using this power of attorney to grant power to another person (called the Agent) to make decisions about your property and to use your property on your behalf. Under this power of attorney you give your Agent broad and sweeping powers to sell or otherwise dispose of your property without notice to you. Under this document your Agent will continue to have these powers after you become incapacitated. The powers that you give your Agent are explained more fully in the Maine Uniform Power of Attorney Act, Maine Revised Statutes, Title 18-C, Article 5, Part 9. You have the right to revoke this power of attorney at any time as long as you are not incapacitated. If there is anything about this power of attorney that you do not understand, you should ask an attorney to explain it to you.
Notice to the Agent: As the "Agent" you are given power under this power of attorney to make decisions about the property belonging to the Principal and to dispose of the Principal's property on the Principal's behalf in accordance with the terms of this power of attorney. This power of attorney is valid only if the Principal is of sound mind when the Principal signs it. When you accept the authority granted under this power of attorney, a special legal relationship is created between you and the Principal. This relationship imposes upon you legal duties that continue until you resign or the power of attorney is terminated or revoked. The duties are more fully explained in the Maine Uniform Power of Attorney Act, Maine Revised Statutes, Title 18-C, Article 5, Part 9 and Title 18-B, sections 802 to 807 and Title 18-B, chapter 9. As the Agent, you are generally not entitled to use the Principal's property for your own benefit or to make gifts to yourself or others unless the power of attorney gives you such authority. If you violate your duty under this power of attorney, you may be liable for damages and may be subject to criminal prosecution. You must stop acting on behalf of the Principal if you learn of any event that terminates this power of attorney or your authority under this power of attorney. Events of termination are more fully explained in the Maine Uniform Power of Attorney Act and include, but are not limited to, revocation of your authority or of the power of attorney by the Principal, the death of the Principal or the commencement of divorce proceedings between you and the Principal. If there is anything about this power of attorney or your duties under it that you do not understand, you should ask an attorney to explain it to you."
§ 5-906. Validity of power of attorney
§ 5-907. Meaning and effect of power of attorney
The meaning and effect of a power of attorney are determined by the law of the jurisdiction indicated in the power of attorney and, in the absence of an indication of jurisdiction, by the law of the jurisdiction in which the power of attorney was executed.
§ 5-908. Nomination of conservator or guardian; relation of agent to court-appointed fiduciary
§ 5-909. When power of attorney effective
§ 5-910. Termination of power of attorney or agent's authority
(1) The marriage of the principal to a person other than the agent if upon or after execution of the power of attorney the principal and the agent are or became registered domestic partners, the filing with the domestic partner registry, in accordance with Title 22, section 2710, subsection 4, of a notice consenting to the termination of a registered domestic partnership of the principal and the agent; or
(2) Upon service, in accordance with Title 22, section 2710, subsection 4, of a notice of intent to terminate the registered domestic partnership of the principal and the agent; or
§ 5-911. Coagents and successor agents
§ 5-912. Reimbursement and compensation of agent
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, an agent is entitled to reimbursement of expenses reasonably incurred on behalf of the principal and to compensation that is reasonable under the circumstances. The factors set forth in section 3-721, subsection 2 should be considered as guides in determining the reasonableness of compensation under this section.
§ 5-913. Agent's acceptance
Except as otherwise provided in the power of attorney, a person accepts appointment as an agent under a power of attorney by exercising authority or performing duties as an agent or by any other assertion or conduct indicating acceptance.
§ 5-914. Agent's duties
(1) The value and nature of the principal's property;
(2) The principal's foreseeable obligations and need for maintenance;
(3) Minimization of taxes, including income, estate, inheritance, generation-skipping transfer and gift taxes; and
(4) Eligibility for a benefit, a program or assistance under a statute, rule or regulation.
§ 5-915. Exoneration of agent
A provision in a power of attorney relieving an agent of liability for breach of duty is binding on the principal and the principal's successors in interest except to the extent the provision:
§ 5-916. Judicial relief
§ 5-917. Agent's liability
An agent that violates this Part is liable to the principal or the principal's successors in interest for the amount required to:
§ 5-918. Agent's resignation; notice
Unless the power of attorney provides a different method for an agent's resignation, an agent may resign by giving notice to the principal and, if the principal is incapacitated:
§ 5-919. Acceptance of and reliance upon acknowledged power of attorney
§ 5-920. Liability for refusal to accept acknowledged power of attorney
§ 5-921. Principles of law and equity
Unless displaced by a provision of this Part, the principles of law and equity supplement this Part.
§ 5-922. Laws applicable to financial institutions and entities
This Part does not supersede any other law applicable to financial institutions or other entities, and the other law controls if inconsistent with this Part.
§ 5-923. Remedies under other law
The remedies under this Part are not exclusive and do not abrogate any right or remedy under the law of this State other than this Part.
SUBPART 2
AUTHORITY
§ 5-931. Authority that requires specific grant; grant of general authority
§ 5-932. Incorporation of authority
§ 5-933. Construction of authority generally
Except as otherwise provided in the power of attorney, by executing a power of attorney that incorporates by reference a subject described in sections 5-934 to 5-947 or that grants to an agent authority to do all acts that a principal could do pursuant to section 5-931, subsection 3, a principal authorizes the agent, with respect to that subject, to:
§ 5-934. Real property
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to real property authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-935. Tangible personal property
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to tangible personal property authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-936. Stocks and bonds
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to stocks and bonds authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-937. Commodities and options
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to commodities and options authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-938. Banks and other financial institutions
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to banks and other financial institutions authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-939. Operation of entity or business
Subject to the terms of a document or an agreement governing an entity or an entity ownership interest, and unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to operation of an entity or business authorizes the agent to:
(1) The location of its operation;
(2) The nature and extent of its business;
(3) The methods of manufacturing, selling, merchandising, financing, accounting and advertising employed in its operation;
(4) The amount and types of insurance carried; and
(5) The mode of engaging, compensating and dealing with its employees and accountants, attorneys or other advisors;
§ 5-940. Insurance and annuities
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to insurance and annuities authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-941. Estate, trust and other beneficial interest
§ 5-942. Claims and litigation
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to claims and litigation authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-943. Personal and family maintenance
(1) Individuals legally entitled to be supported by the principal; and
(2) Individuals whom the principal has customarily supported or indicated the intent to support;
(1) Purchase, lease or other contract; or
(2) Paying the operating costs, including interest, amortization payments, repairs, improvements and taxes, for premises owned by the principal or occupied by those individuals;
§ 5-944. Benefits from governmental programs or civil or military service
§ 5-945. Retirement plans
§ 5-946. Taxes
Unless the power of attorney otherwise provides, language in a power of attorney granting general authority with respect to taxes authorizes the agent to:
§ 5-947. Gifts
SUBPART 3
STATUTORY FORMS
§ 5-951. Agent's certification
The following optional form may be used by an agent to certify facts concerning a power of attorney.
(1) The Principal is alive and has not revoked the Power of Attorney or my authority to act under the Power of Attorney and the Power of Attorney and my authority to act under the Power of Attorney have not terminated;
(2) If the Power of Attorney was drafted to become effective upon the happening of an event or contingency, the event or contingency has occurred;
(3) If I was named as a successor agent, the prior agent is no longer able or willing to serve; and
(4)
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Agent's Signature | Date |
SUBPART 4
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
§ 5-961. Uniformity of application and construction
In applying and construing this Part, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among the states that enact it.
§ 5-962. Relation to Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act
This Part modifies, limits and supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 United States Code, Section 7001 et seq., but does not modify, limit or supersede 15 United States Code, Section 7001(c) or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in 15 United States Code, Section 7003(b).
§ 5-963. Effect on existing powers of attorney
Except as otherwise provided in this Part:
An act done before July 1, 2019 is not affected by this Part.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in §6-203 by striking out all of subsection 2 (page 301, lines 20 to 24 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §6-311 (page 310, lines 26 to 28 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 6-311. Application of Part
This Part applies to registrations of securities in beneficiary form made before, on or after July 1, 2019 by decedents dying on or after July 1, 2019.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 in Article 6 by inserting at the end the following:
‘ PART 4
UNIFORM REAL PROPERTY TRANSFER ON DEATH ACT
§ 6-401. Short title
This Part may be known and cited as "the Uniform Real Property Transfer on Death Act."
§ 6-402. Definitions
As used in this Part, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
§ 6-403. Applicability
This Part applies to a transfer on death deed made before, on or after July 1, 2019 by a transferor dying on or after July 1, 2019.
§ 6-404. Nonexclusivity
This Part does not affect any method of transferring property otherwise permitted under the law of this State.
§ 6-405. Transfer on death deed authorized
An individual may transfer for no consideration property to one or more beneficiaries effective at the transferor's death by a transfer on death deed.
§ 6-406. Transfer on death deed revocable
A transfer on death deed is revocable even if the deed or another instrument contains a contrary provision.
§ 6-407. Transfer on death deed nontestamentary
A transfer on death deed is nontestamentary.
§ 6-408. Capacity of transferor; undue influence of transferor
§ 6-409. Requirements
A transfer on death deed:
§ 6-410. Notice, delivery, acceptance, consideration not required
A transfer on death deed is effective without:
§ 6-411. Revocation by instrument authorized; revocation by act not permitted
(1) A transfer on death deed that revokes the deed or part of the deed expressly or by inconsistency;
(2) An instrument of revocation that expressly revokes the deed or part of the deed; or
(3) An inter vivos deed that expressly revokes the transfer on death deed or part of the deed; and
§ 6-412. Effect of transfer on death deed during transferor's life
During a transferor's life, a transfer on death deed does not:
§ 6-413. Effect of transfer on death deed at transferor's death
§ 6-414. Notice of death affidavit
A beneficiary who takes under a transfer on death deed may file for recording in the registry of deeds in the county where the real property is located a notice of death affidavit to confirm title following the death of the transferor. The notice of death affidavit must contain the name and address, if known, of each beneficiary taking under the transfer on death deed, the street address of the property, the date of the transfer on death deed, the book and page number at which the transfer on death deed was recorded prior to the transferor's death, the name of the deceased transferor, the date and place of death and the name and address to which all future tax bills should be mailed. The affidavit must be notarized.
After recording the notice of death affidavit, the register of deeds shall return the original affidavit to the person who filed it and mail a copy of the affidavit to the tax assessor of the municipality where the property is located.
The filing of the notice of death affidavit is not a condition to the transfer of title.
§ 6-415. Disclaimer
A beneficiary may disclaim all or part of the beneficiary's interest as provided by Article 2, Part 9.
§ 6-416. Liability for creditor claims and statutory allowances
A beneficiary of a transfer on death deed is liable for an allowed claim against the transferor's probate estate and statutory allowances to a surviving spouse and children to the extent provided in section 6-102.
§ 6-417. Optional form of transfer on death deed
The following form may be used to create a transfer on death deed. The other sections of this Part govern the effect of this or any other instrument used to create a transfer on death deed.
You should carefully read all information on the other side of this form. YOU MAY WANT TO CONSULT A LAWYER BEFORE USING THIS FORM.
This form must be recorded before your death, or it will not be effective.
Owner or Owners Making This Deed:
............................................................
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address
Legal description of the property:
........................................................................................................................
I designate the following beneficiary if the beneficiary survives me.
............................................................
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address, if available
If my primary beneficiary does not survive me, I designate the following alternate beneficiary if that beneficiary survives me.
............................................................
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address, if available
At my death, I transfer my interest in the described property to the beneficiaries as designated above.
Before my death, I have the right to revoke this deed.
............................................................
(SEAL, if any).....................................
Signature.................................................Date...............
............................................................
(SEAL, if any).....................................
Signature.................................................Date...............
What does the Transfer on Death (TOD) deed do? When you die, this deed transfers the described property, subject to any liens or mortgages (or other encumbrances) on the property at your death. Probate is not required. The TOD deed has no effect until you die. You can revoke it at any time. You are also free to transfer the property to someone else during your lifetime. If you do not own any interest in the property when you die, this deed will have no effect.
How do I make a TOD deed? Complete this form. Have it acknowledged before a notary public or other individual authorized by law to take acknowledgments. Record the form in each county where any part of the property is located. The form has no effect unless it is acknowledged and recorded before your death.
Is the "legal description" of the property necessary? Yes.
How do I find the "legal description" of the property? This information may be on the deed you received when you became an owner of the property. This information may also be available in the registry of deeds for the county where the property is located. If you are not absolutely sure, consult a lawyer.
Can I change my mind before I record the TOD deed? Yes. If you have not yet recorded the deed and want to change your mind, simply tear up or otherwise destroy the deed.
How do I "record" the TOD deed? Take the completed and acknowledged form to the registry of deeds of the county where the property is located. Follow the instructions given by the register of deeds to make the form part of the official property records. If the property is in more than one county, you should record the deed in each county.
Can I later revoke the TOD deed if I change my mind? Yes. You can revoke the TOD deed. No one, including the beneficiaries, can prevent you from revoking the deed.
How do I revoke the TOD deed after it is recorded? There are three ways to revoke a recorded TOD deed: (1) Complete and acknowledge a revocation form, and record it in each county where the property is located. (2) Complete and acknowledge a new TOD deed that disposes of the same property, and record it in each county where the property is located. (3) Transfer the property to someone else during your lifetime by a recorded deed that expressly revokes the TOD deed. You may not revoke the TOD deed by will.
I am being pressured to complete this form. What should I do? Do not complete this form under pressure. Seek help from a trusted family member, friend, or lawyer.
Do I need to tell the beneficiaries about the TOD deed? No, but it is recommended. Secrecy can cause later complications and might make it easier for others to commit fraud.
I have other questions about this form. What should I do? This form is designed to fit some but not all situations. If you have other questions, you are encouraged to consult a lawyer.
§ 6-418. Optional form of revocation
The following form may be used to create an instrument of revocation under this Part. The other sections of this Part govern the effect of this or any other instrument used to revoke a transfer on death deed.
This revocation must be recorded before you die or it will not be effective. This revocation is effective only as to the interests in the property of owners who sign this revocation.
Owner or Owners of Property Making This Revocation:
............................................................
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address
............................................................................................
Printed name..........................................Mailing address
Legal description of the property:
........................................................................................................................
I revoke all my previous transfers of this property by transfer on death deed.
............................................................
(SEAL, if any).....................................
Signature.................................................Date...............
............................................................
(SEAL, if any).....................................
Signature.................................................Date...............
How do I use this form to revoke a Transfer on Death (TOD) deed? Complete this form. Have it acknowledged before a notary public or other individual authorized to take acknowledgments. Record the form in the public records in the registry of deeds of each county where the property is located. The form must be acknowledged and recorded before your death or it has no effect.
How do I find the "legal description" of the property? This information may be on the TOD deed. It may also be available in the registry of deeds for the county where the property is located. If you are not absolutely sure, consult a lawyer.
How do I "record" the form? Take the completed and acknowledged form to the registry of deeds of the county where the property is located. Follow the instructions given by the register of deeds to make the form part of the official property records. If the property is located in more than one county, you should record the form in each of those counties.
I am being pressured to complete this form. What should I do? Do not complete this form under pressure. Seek help from a trusted family member, friend, or lawyer.
I have other questions about this form. What should I do? This form is designed to fit some but not all situations. If you have other questions, consult a lawyer.
§ 6-419. Uniformity of application and construction
In applying and construing this uniform act, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among the states that enact it.
§ 6-420. Relation to Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act
This Part modifies, limits and supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 United States Code, Section 7001, et seq., but does not modify, limit or supersede Section 101(c) of that Act, 15 United States Code, Section 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in Section 103(b) of that Act, 15 United States Code, Section 7003(b).
§ 6-421. Effective date
This Part takes effect July 1, 2019.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §7-203 (page 317, lines 33 to 35 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 7-203. Application of Part
This Part applies to fiduciary relationships in existence on July 1, 2019 or established after that date.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §7-472 (page 341, lines 34 to 38 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 7-472. Application of Part to all trusts and estates
This Part applies to every trust or decedent's estate, including those in existence on July 1, 2019, beginning with the first fiscal year of the trust or decedent's estate that begins on or after July 1, 2019, except as otherwise expressly provided in the will or terms of the trust or in this Part.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §7-473 (page 342, lines 1 to 8 in L.D.)
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §8-204 (page 346, lines 4 to 8 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 8-204. Approval of bond by judge
Except as otherwise provided by sections 3-603 to 3-606, 4-204, 4-207, 5-125, 5-415 and 5-416 and Title 18-B, section 702, a bond required to be given to the State of Maine or the court or to be filed in the probate office is insufficient until it has been examined by the court and approved by the court in writing.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §8-213 (page 347, lines 20 to 27 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 8-213. Judicial authorization of actions
The court may expressly authorize or instruct a personal representative or other fiduciary, on the court's own initiative or on the complaint of any interested person, to commence an action on the bond for the benefit of the estate. Nothing in this section may be deemed to limit the power or duty of a successor fiduciary to bring proceedings the fiduciary is authorized to bring without express court authorization under section 3-606, subsection 1, paragraph D; section 5-417, subsection 1, paragraph C; Title 18-B, section 702; or any other provision of law.’
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of §8-301 (page 348, lines 2 to 31 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 8-301. Time of taking effect; provisions for transition
Amend the bill in Part A in section 2 by striking out all of Article 9 and inserting the following:
‘ ARTICLE 9
ADOPTION
PART 1
GENERAL PROVISIONS
§ 9-101. Short title
This Article may be known and cited as "the Adoption Act."
§ 9-102. Definitions
As used in this Article, unless the context otherwise indicates, the following terms have the following meanings.
§ 9-103. Jurisdiction
§ 9-104. Venue; transfer
§ 9-105. Rights of adopted persons
Except as otherwise provided by law, an adopted person has all the same rights, including inheritance rights, that a child born to the adoptive parents would have. An adoptee also retains the right to inherit from the adoptee's former parents if the adoption decree so provides, as specified in section 2-117.
§ 9-106. Legal representation
§ 9-107. Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978
The federal Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, Title 25, Section 1901 et seq. governs all proceedings under this Article that pertain to an Indian child as defined in that Act.
§ 9-108. Application of prior laws
The laws in effect on June 30, 2019 apply to proceedings for which any of the following occurred before July 1, 2019:
§ 9-109. Mediation
The court may refer the parties to mediation at any time after a petition is filed if mediation services are available at a reasonable fee or no cost, and may require that the parties have made a good faith effort to mediate the issue before holding a hearing. An agreement reached by the parties through mediation on an issue must be reduced to writing, signed by the parties and presented to the court for approval as a court order.
PART 2
DETERMINATION OF PARENTAGE AND TERMINATION OF PARENTAL RIGHTS
§ 9-201. Determination of parentage
§ 9-202. Surrender and release; consent
The parents or the surviving parent must execute the surrender and release or the consent in the presence of the judge. The adoptee, if 14 years of age or older, must execute the consent in the presence of the judge. The waiver of notice by the putative parent is governed by section 9-201, subsection 3.
(1) One of the petitioners is a blood relative; or
(2) The adoptee is an adult;
The court shall accept a waiver of notice by a putative parent that meets the requirements of section 9-201, subsection 3.
§ 9-203. Duties and responsibilities subsequent to surrender and release
Without notice to the parent or parents, the surrender and release authorized pursuant to section 9-202 may be transferred together with all rights under section 9-202 from the transferee agency to the department or from the department as original transferee to any licensed child-placing agency. If the licensed child-placing agency or the department is unable to find a suitable adoptive home for a child surrendered and released by a parent or parents, the licensed child-placing agency or the department to whom custody and control of that child have been surrendered and released or transferred shall request a review pursuant to section 9-205.
§ 9-204. Termination of parental rights
(1) Termination is in the best interest of the child; and
(2) Either:
(a) The parent is unwilling or unable to protect the child from jeopardy, as defined by Title 22, section 4002, subsection 6, and these circumstances are unlikely to change within a time that is reasonably calculated to meet the child's needs;
(b) The parent has been unwilling or unable to take responsibility for the child within a time that is reasonably calculated to meet the child's needs; or
(c) The parent has abandoned the child, as described in Title 22, section 4002, subsection 1-A;
In making findings pursuant to this paragraph, the court may consider the extent to which the parent had opportunities to rehabilitate and to reunify with the child, including actions by the child’s other parent to foster or to interfere with a relationship between the parent and child or services provided by public or nonprofit agencies.
(1) Reviewing records of psychiatric, psychological or physical examinations of the child, parents or other persons having or seeking care or custody of the child;
(2) Review of relevant school records and other pertinent materials;
(3) Interviewing the child with or without other persons present; and
(4) Interviews with parents, guardians, teachers and other persons who have been involved in caring for or treating the child.
The guardian ad litem may subpoena, examine and cross-examine witnesses and shall make recommendations to the court.
§ 9-205. Review
If the parents are not notified or are unable or unwilling to assume physical custody of the child or if the court determines that placement of the child with the parents would constitute jeopardy as defined by Title 22, section 4002, subsection 6, the case must be transferred to the District Court for a hearing pursuant to Title 22, section 4038-A.
PART 3
ADOPTION PROCEDURES
§ 9-301. Petition for adoption and change of name; filing fee
Spouses or unmarried persons jointly or an unmarried person, whether resident or nonresident of the State, may petition the court to adopt a person, regardless of age, and to change that person's name. The fee for filing the petition is $65 plus:
§ 9-302. Consent for adoption
(1) Whether the person or agency determined the needs and interests of the child;
(2) Whether the person or agency determined the ability of the petitioner and other prospective families to meet the child's needs;
(3) Whether the person or agency made the decision consistent with the facts;
(4) Whether the harm of removing the child from the child's current placement outweighs any inadequacies of that placement; and
(5) All other factors that have a bearing on a determination of the reasonableness of the person's or agency's decision in withholding consent; and
A petition for adoption must be pending before a consent is executed.
(1) Received notice and failed to respond to the notice within the prescribed time period;
(2) Waived the right to notice under section 9-201, subsection 3;
(3) Does not establish parentage of the child under section 9-201, subsection 9; or
(4) Holds no parental rights regarding the adoptee under the laws of the foreign country in which the adoptee was born;
§ 9-303. Petition
§ 9-304. Investigation; guardian ad litem; registry
(1) If the court has a report that provides sufficient, current information, the court may waive the requirement of a study and report.
(2) If the petitioner is a relative of the child or the spouse or domestic partner of the child's parent, the court may waive the requirement of a study and report.
(1) The criminal history record information obtained from the Maine Criminal Justice Information System must include a record of public criminal history record information as defined in Title 16, section 703, subsection 8.
(2) The criminal history record information obtained from the Federal Bureau of Investigation must include other state and national criminal history record information.
(3) Each prospective parent who is not a parent of the child shall submit to having fingerprints taken. The State Police, upon receipt of the fingerprint card, may charge the court for the expenses incurred in processing state and national criminal history record checks. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the applicant's fingerprints and shall forward the fingerprints to the State Bureau of Identification so that the bureau can conduct state and national criminal history record checks. Except for the portion of the payment, if any, that constitutes the processing fee charged by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, all money received by the State Police for purposes of this paragraph must be paid over to the Treasurer of State. The money must be applied to the expenses of administration incurred by the Department of Public Safety.
(4) The subject of a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record check may obtain a copy of the criminal history record check by following the procedures outlined in 28 Code of Federal Regulations, Sections 16.32 and 16.33. The subject of a state criminal history record check may inspect and review the criminal history record information pursuant to Title 16, section 709.
(5) State and federal criminal history record information may be used by the court for the purpose of screening prospective adoptive parents in determining whether the adoption is in the best interest of the child.
(6) Information obtained pursuant to this paragraph is confidential. The results of background checks received by the court are for official use only and may not be disseminated outside the court except as required under Title 22, section 4011-A.
(7) The expense of obtaining the information required by this paragraph is incorporated in the adoption filing fee established in section 9-301. The court shall collect the total fee and transfer the appropriate funds to the Department of Public Safety and the department.
The court may waive the background check of a prospective adoptive parent if a previous background check was completed by a court or by the department under this subsection within a reasonable period of time and the court is satisfied that nothing new that would be included in the background check has transpired since the last background check.
This subsection does not authorize the court to request a background check for a petitioner who is also the current legal parent of the child.
(1) The criminal history record information obtained from the Maine Criminal Justice Information System must include a record of public criminal history record information as defined in Title 16, section 703, subsection 8.
(2) The criminal history record information obtained from the Federal Bureau of Investigation must include other state and national criminal history record information.
(3) Each prospective parent who is not a parent of the child shall submit to having fingerprints taken. The State Police, upon receipt of the fingerprint card, may charge the department for the expenses incurred in processing state and national criminal history record checks. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the applicant's fingerprints and shall forward the fingerprints to the State Bureau of Identification so that the bureau can conduct state and national criminal history record checks. Except for the portion of the payment, if any, that constitutes the processing fee charged by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, all money received by the State Police for purposes of this paragraph must be paid over to the Treasurer of State. The money must be applied to the expenses of administration incurred by the Department of Public Safety.
(4) The subject of a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record check may obtain a copy of the criminal history record check by following the procedures outlined in 28 Code of Federal Regulations, Sections 16.32 and 16.33. The subject of a state criminal history record check may inspect and review the criminal history record information pursuant to Title 16, section 709.
(5) State and federal criminal history record information may be used by the department for the purpose of screening prospective adoptive parents in determining whether the adoption is in the best interest of the child.
(6) Information obtained pursuant to this paragraph is confidential. The results of background checks received by the department are for official use only and may not be disseminated outside the department except to a court considering a petition for adoption under subsection 1.
(1) A current medical, psychological and developmental history of the child, including an account of the child's prenatal care and medical condition at birth, results of newborn screening, any drug or medication taken during pregnancy by the parent who gave birth to the child, any subsequent medical, psychological or psychiatric examination and diagnosis, any physical, sexual or emotional abuse suffered by the child and a record of any immunizations and health care received since birth; and
(2) Relevant information concerning the medical, psychological and social history of a parent who was the source of the gametes used in the child's conception, including any known disease or hereditary disposition to disease, the history of use of drugs and alcohol, the health during pregnancy of the parent who gave birth to the child and the health of a parent who was the source of the gametes used in the child’s conception at the time of the child's birth.
The petitioner may present evidence to rebut the presumption.
§ 9-305. Evidence; procedure
The court may proceed as follows in considering a petition for adoption.
§ 9-306. Allowable payments; expenses
§ 9-307. Adoption not granted
If the court determines that it is unable to finalize an adoption to which parents have consented, the court shall notify the parents that the court has not granted the adoption and shall conduct a review pursuant to section 9-205.
§ 9-308. Final decree; dispositional hearing; effect of adoption
§ 9-309. Appeals
§ 9-310. Records confidential
Notwithstanding any other provision of law and except as provided in Title 22, section 2768, all court records relating to an adoption decreed on or after August 8, 1953 are confidential. The court shall keep records of those adoptions segregated from all other court records. If a court determines that examination of records pertaining to a particular adoption is proper, the court may authorize that examination by specified persons, authorize the register to disclose to specified persons any information contained in the records by letter, certificate or copy of the record or authorize a combination of both examination and disclosure.
Any medical or genetic information in the court records relating to an adoption must be made available to the adopted child when the adopted child attains 18 years of age and to the adopted child's descendants, adoptive parents or legal guardian on petition of the court.
§ 9-311. Interstate placements
§ 9-312. Foreign adoptions
If an adoption in a foreign country has been finalized and the adopting parents are seeking an adoption under the laws of this State to give recognition to the foreign adoption, a court may enter a decree of adoption based solely upon a judgment of adoption in a foreign country and may order a change of name if requested by the adopting parents. The fee for filing the petition is $55.
§ 9-313. Advertisement
§ 9-314. Immunity from liability for good faith reporting; proceedings
A person, including an agent of the department, who participates in good faith in reporting violations of this Article or participates in a related child protection investigation or proceeding is immune from any criminal or civil liability for reporting or participating in the investigation or proceeding. For purposes of this section, "good faith" does not include instances when a false report is made and the person knows the report is false.
§ 9-315. Annulment of the adoption decree
The court may allocate the costs of the guardian ad litem to one or more of the parties and may appoint counsel for a minor adoptee or a party to the annulment proceedings. A minor adoptee may appear and be represented by counsel.
PART 4
ADOPTION ASSISTANCE PROGRAM
§ 9-401. Authorization; special needs children
§ 9-402. Adoption assistance
§ 9-403. Administration
Except as provided by section 9-401, subsection 8, once an adoption assistance payment is agreed upon and the agreement signed by the prospective adoptive parents, the department may not reduce the adoption assistance payment amounts.
§ 9-404. Rules
The department shall adopt rules for the program consistent with this Part.’
Amend the bill in Part B in section 2 in §114 by striking out all of subsection 7 (page 374, lines 11 to 19 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
Amend the bill in Part B in section 2 by striking out all of §115 (page 374, lines 20 to 42 and page 375, lines 1 to 8 in L.D.) and inserting the following:
‘ § 115. Application
Amend the bill by striking out all of Part C and inserting the following:
PART C
‘Sec. C-1. 1 MRSA §433, sub-§2-A, ¶D, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 250, Pt. D, §2, is amended to read:
(1) Title 13;
(2) Title 13-B;
(3) Title 13-C;
(4) Title 14;
(5) Title 15;
(6) Title 16;
(7) Title 17;
(8) Title 17-A;
(9) Title 18-A 18-C;
(10) Title 18-B;
(11) Title 19-A;
(12) Title 20-A; and
(13) Title 21-A;
Sec. C-2. 3 MRSA §704, as enacted by PL 1985, c. 507, §1, is amended to read:
§ 704. Beneficiaries under disability
Any beneficiary who is entitled to make an election of benefits under subchapter V 5, but is not lawfully qualified to make that election, shall have that election made in his the beneficiary's behalf by the person authorized to do so by Title 18-A 18-C, Article V 5.
Sec. C-3. 4 MRSA §152, sub-§5-A, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 460, §1, is amended to read:
(1) Any interim or final order then in effect concerning custody or other parental rights with respect to the minor child;
(2) Any proceeding involving custody or other parental rights with respect to the minor child currently filed or pending before any court of this State or another state, including before a probate court in this State; or
(3) Any other related action currently filed or pending before any court of this State or another state, including before a probate court in this State.
Sec. C-4. 4 MRSA §253, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §7, is further amended to read:
§ 253. Jurisdiction in court where proceedings originate
Subject to Title 18-A 18-C, sections 1-303 and 3-201, and except as otherwise provided in Title 18-A 18-C, sections 5-211 and 5-313 section 5-105, when a case is orginally originally within the jurisdiction of the probate court in 2 or more counties, the one which that first commences proceedings therein retains the same exclusively throughout. The jurisdiction assumed in any case, except in cases of fraud, so far as it depends on the residence of any person or the locality or amount of property, shall may not be contested in any proceeding whatever, except on an appeal or removal from the probate court in the original case or when the want of jurisdiction appears on the same record.
Sec. C-5. 4 MRSA §807, sub-§3, ¶I, as amended by PL 2001, c. 554, §1 and PL 2003, c. 689, Pt. B, §6, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-6. 4 MRSA §807, sub-§3, ¶S, as amended by PL 2015, c. 195, §1, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-7. 4 MRSA §1204, as enacted by PL 1983, c. 853, Pt. C, §§15 and 18, is amended to read:
§ 1204. Beneficiaries under disability
Any beneficiary who is entitled to make an election of benefits under Subchapter V subchapter 5, but is not lawfully qualified to make that election, shall have that election made in his the beneficiary's behalf by the person authorized to do so by Title 18-A 18-C, Article V 5.
Sec. C-8. 4 MRSA §1551, sub-§2, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 406, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-9. 4 MRSA §1551, sub-§3, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 406, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-10. 4 MRSA §1554, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 406, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-11. 4 MRSA §1555, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 406, §1, is amended to read:
(1) The wishes of the parties;
(2) The age of the child;
(3) The nature of the proceeding, including the contentiousness of the hearing;
(4) The financial resources of the parties;
(5) The extent to which a guardian ad litem may assist in providing information concerning the best interests of the child;
(6) Whether the family has experienced a history of domestic abuse;
(7) Abuse of the child by one of the parties; and
(8) Other factors the court determines relevant.
Sec. C-12. 4 MRSA §1557, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 406, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-13. 5 MRSA §12004-I, sub-§73-B, as enacted by PL 2009, c. 262, §1, is amended to read:
Probate and Trust Law | Probate and Trust Law Advisory Commission | Not Authorized | 18-A 18-C MRSA §1-801 |
Sec. C-14. 5 MRSA §17055, sub-§§1 and 2, as enacted by PL 1985, c. 801, §§5 and 7, are amended to read:
Sec. C-15. 5 MRSA §17953, sub-§4, ¶B, as amended by PL 1991, c. 469, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-16. 5 MRSA §18553, sub-§4, ¶B, as amended by PL 1991, c. 469, §5, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-17. 5 MRSA §19507, sub-§4, ¶D, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 837, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-18. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§2, ¶C, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §9, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-19. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§4, ¶A, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §10, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-20. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§4, ¶B, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §11, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-21. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§8, ¶B, as enacted by PL 1979, c. 540, §12, is amended to read:
Sec. C-22. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§10, as repealed and replaced by PL 2007, c. 88, §1, is amended to read:
This subsection does not apply to the creation, perfection or enforcement of a security interest in a deposit or account other than an assignment of a deposit or account in a consumer transaction as defined in Title 11, section 9-1102, subsection 26.
Sec. C-23. 9-B MRSA §427, sub-§13, as enacted by PL 1979, c. 540, §13-A, is amended to read:
Sec. C-24. 9-B MRSA §473, sub-§2, ¶C, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 398, Pt. I, §41, is amended to read:
Sec. C-25. 9-B MRSA §476, sub-§1, ¶D, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 398, Pt. I, §41, is amended to read:
(1) Entitled to receive notice pursuant to paragraph C, who is a minor or who is known by the petitioner or any transferor affiliate to be subject to any other disability, including confinement in a penal institution, and for whom no guardian, other than a transferor affiliate, has been appointed;
(2) Of whose estate a transferor affiliate is conservator and for whom no guardian, other than a transferor affiliate, has been appointed; and
(3) Whose identity or whereabouts is unknown.
Title 18-A 18-C, section 1-403 governs in determining the propriety of any such appointments.
Sec. C-26. 13 MRSA §732, sub-§5, as amended by PL 2015, c. 429, §3, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-27. 13 MRSA §732, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 46, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-28. 13-C MRSA §1501, sub-§2, ¶L, as enacted by PL 2001, c. 640, Pt. A, §2 and affected by Pt. B, §7, is amended to read:
Sec. C-29. 14 MRSA §6303, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §24, is further amended to read:
§ 6303. Death of mortgagor or successor
If a person entitled to redeem a mortgaged estate or an equity of redemption which that has been sold on execution, or the right to redeem such right, or the right to redeem lands set off on execution, dies without having made a tender for that purpose, a tender may be made and an action for redemption commenced and prosecuted by his the person's personal representative, or by his the person's heirs or devisees subject to the authority of the personal representative over the administration of the estate under Title 18-A 18-C, sections 3-709 and 3-711. If the plaintiff in such action dies pending the action, it may be prosecuted to final judgment by his the plaintiff's personal representative, or by his the plaintiff's heirs or devisees subject to the same authority of the personal representative. When a mortgagor resides out of the State, any person may, in his the mortgagor's behalf, tender to the holder of the mortgage the amount due thereon. The tender shall be is as effectual as if made by the mortgagor.
Sec. C-30. 14 MRSA §8104-C, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 740, §4, is amended to read:
§ 8104-C. Wrongful death action
Subject to any immunity provided by this chapter or otherwise provided by law, actions for the death of a person brought by the personal representatives of the deceased person against a governmental entity or employee shall must be brought in the same manner that is provided for similar actions in Title 18-A 18-C, section 2-804 2-807, and amounts recovered shall must be disposed of as required in that section ; provided , except that the limitations of sections 8104-D and 8105 shall apply.
Sec. C-31. 15 MRSA §321, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2003, c. 672, §1, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-32. 16 MRSA §651, as amended by PL 1979, c. 540, §24-B, is further amended to read:
§ 651. Rules of evidence
The rules of evidence in special proceedings of a civil nature, such as before referees, auditors and county commissioners, are the same as provided for civil actions. The rules of evidence in courts of probate are as provided in Title 18-A 18-C, section 1-107 1-106.
Sec. C-33. 17-A MRSA §553-A, sub-§1, ¶¶A and B, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 233, §1, are amended to read:
Sec. C-34. 18 MRSA §4163-A, as corrected by RR 2001, c. 2, Pt. B, §37 and affected by §58, is amended to read:
§ 4163-A. Corporation; application
Nothing in sections 4161 to 4163 or this section requires any corporation to file an application pursuant to sections 4161 to 4163 or this section if the corporation is deemed not to be doing business in this State under Title 13-C, section 1501 and Title 18-A 18-C, section 7-105 7-103.
Sec. C-35. 19-A MRSA §701, sub-§3, as amended by PL 2011, c. 542, Pt. A, §20, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-36. 19-A MRSA §902, sub-§1, ¶J, as enacted by PL 2005, c. 594, §3, is amended to read:
Sec. C-37. 19-A MRSA §1802, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2015, c. 296, Pt. C, §19 and affected by Pt. D, §1, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-38. 19-A MRSA §1851, sub-§2, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 296, Pt. A, §1 and affected by Pt. D, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-39. 19-A MRSA §2002, as amended by PL 1999, c. 46, §2, is further amended to read:
§ 2002. Application
Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, this chapter applies to a court action or administrative proceeding in which a child support order is issued or modified under Title 18-A 18-C, section 5-204, this Title or Title 22 and to any court action or administrative proceeding in which past support is awarded.
Sec. C-40. 21-A MRSA §601, sub-§2, ¶B-1, as enacted by PL 2007, c. 455, §18, is amended to read:
Sec. C-41. 22 MRSA §14, sub-§2-I, ¶B, as amended by PL 2003, c. 20, Pt. K, §2, is further amended to read:
(1) As to assets of the recipient included in the probated estate, this claim may be enforced pursuant to Title 18-A 18-C, Article 3, Part 8.
(2) As to assets of the recipient not included in the probated estate, this claim may be enforced by filing a claim in any court of competent jurisdiction.
Sec. C-42. 22 MRSA §14, sub-§2-I, ¶F, as amended by PL 2009, c. 150, §3, is further amended to read:
(1) All real and personal property and other assets included in the recipient's estate, as defined in Title 18-A 18-C, section 1-201; and
(2) Any other real and personal property and other assets in which the recipient had any legal interest at the time of death, to the extent of that interest, including assets conveyed to a survivor, heir or assign of the deceased recipient through tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living trust, joint tenancy in personal property or other arrangement but not including joint tenancy in real property.
Sec. C-43. 22 MRSA §1711-B, sub-§3, ¶D, as amended by PL 2015, c. 370, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-44. 22 MRSA §1711-C, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 2009, c. 292, §3 and affected by §6, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-45. 22 MRSA §1711-G, sub-§§2, 3 and 7, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 370, §6, are amended to read:
Sec. C-46. 22 MRSA §1826, sub-§2, ¶I, as amended by PL 2017, c. 288, Pt. A, §29, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-47. 22 MRSA §2765, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 1995, c. 694, Pt. D, §30 and affected by Pt. E, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-48. 22 MRSA §2765, sub-§1-A, ¶A, as amended by PL 1995, c. 694, Pt. D, §31 and affected by Pt. E, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-49. 22 MRSA §2843-A, sub-§9, as enacted by PL 1993, c. 609, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-50. 22 MRSA §2848, first ¶, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 193, §2, is amended to read:
When a death is presumed to have occurred in the State but the body has not been located, the State Registrar of Vital Statistics shall register a death in accordance with this section upon receipt of a certified copy of an order of a court issued in accordance with Title 18-A 18-C, section 1-107 1-106, subsection (3) 5.
Sec. C-51. 22 MRSA §3173-E, as enacted by PL 1993, c. 410, Pt. FF, §9, is amended to read:
§ 3173-E. Treatment of joint bank accounts in Medicaid eligibility determinations
When determining eligibility for Medicaid, the department shall establish ownership of joint bank accounts in accordance with Title 18-A 18-C, section 6-103 6-211, subsection (a) 2. If the department determines that funds were withdrawn from a joint account without the consent of the applicant and the applicant owned the funds, the person to whom the funds were transferred is a liable 3rd party and the department shall pursue recovery of the funds in accordance with section 14. The department shall adopt rules to implement this section.
Sec. C-52. 22 MRSA §3472, sub-§10, as amended by PL 2003, c. 653, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-53. 22 MRSA §3472, sub-§12, as amended by PL 2003, c. 653, §2, is further amended to read:
Protective services may include seeking guardianship or a protective order under Title 18-A 18-C, Article 5.
Sec. C-54. 22 MRSA §3473, sub-§2, ¶C, as enacted by PL 1981, c. 527, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. C-55. 22 MRSA §3481, sub-§2, as amended by PL 1993, c. 652, §8, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-56. 22 MRSA §3482, as enacted by PL 1981, c. 527, §2, is amended to read:
§ 3482. Providing for protective services to incapacitated adults who lack the capacity to consent
If the department reasonably determines that an incapacitated adult is being abused, neglected or exploited and lacks capacity to consent to protective services, the department may petition the Probate Court for guardianship or conservatorship, in accordance with Title 18-A 18-C, section 5-601 5-701. The petition must allege specific facts sufficient to show that the incapacitated adult is in need of protective services and lacks capacity to consent to them.
Sec. C-57. 22 MRSA §3483, sub-§1, as amended by PL 1993, c. 652, §9, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-58. 22 MRSA §3765, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 530, Pt. A, §16, is amended to read:
§ 3765. Payments to guardian or conservator
When a relative with whom a child is living is found by the department to be incapable of taking care of the child's money, payment may be made only to a legally appointed guardian or conservator and, notwithstanding Title 18-A 18-C, Article V 5, Part 4, in the matter of infirmities of age or physical disability to manage the child's estate with prudence and understanding, the Probate Court may appoint any suitable person as a conservator.
Sec. C-59. 22 MRSA §4005-E, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2007, c. 371, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-60. 22 MRSA §4008, sub-§3, ¶B, as amended by PL 1995, c. 694, Pt. D, §38 and affected by Pt. E, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-61. 22 MRSA §4008, sub-§3, ¶G, as amended by PL 2003, c. 673, Pt. Z, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-62. 22 MRSA §4031, sub-§1, ¶D, as amended by PL 1995, c. 694, Pt. D, §40 and affected by Pt. E, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-63. 22 MRSA §4037, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 187, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. C-64. 22 MRSA §4038-A, as amended by PL 2005, c. 372, §5, is further amended to read:
§ 4038-A. Transfer to District Court
If a case is transferred to the District Court pursuant to Title 18-A 18-C, section 9-205, the court shall conduct a hearing and enter a dispositional order using the same standards as set forth in section 4036. The court after the hearing and entering of a dispositional order shall conduct reviews in accordance with section 4038 and permanency planning hearings in accordance with section 4038-B.
Sec. C-65. 22 MRSA §4038-B, sub-§4, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2005, c. 372, §6, is amended to read:
(1) Returned to a parent. Before the court may enter an order returning the custody of the child to a parent, the parent must show that the parent has carried out the responsibilities set forth in section 4041, subsection 1-A, paragraph B; that to the court's satisfaction the parent has rectified and resolved the problems that caused the removal of the child from home and any subsequent problems that would interfere with the parent's ability to care for the child and protect the child from jeopardy; and that the parent can protect the child from jeopardy;
(2) Placed for adoption, in which case the department shall file a petition for termination of parental rights;
(3) Cared for by a permanency guardian, as provided in section 4038-C, or a guardian appointed by the Probate Court pursuant to Title 18-A 18-C, sections 5-204 to 5-206 and 5-207;
(4) Placed with a fit and willing relative; or
(5) Placed in another planned permanent living arrangement. The District Court may adopt another planned permanent living arrangement as the permanency plan for the child only after the department has documented to the court a compelling reason for determining that it would not be in the best interests of the child to be returned home, be referred for termination of parental rights or be placed for adoption, be cared for by a permanency guardian or be placed with a fit and willing relative.
Sec. C-66. 22 MRSA §4038-C, sub-§2, as enacted by PL 2005, c. 372, §6, is amended to read:
Sec. C-67. 22 MRSA §4038-E, sub-§7, ¶A, as amended by PL 2013, c. 267, Pt. B, §20, is further amended to read:
(1) The criminal history record information obtained from the Maine Criminal Justice Information System must include a record of public criminal history record information as defined in Title 16, section 703, subsection 8.
(2) The criminal history record information obtained from the Federal Bureau of Investigation must include other state and national criminal history record information.
(3) Each permanency guardian of the child shall submit to having fingerprints taken. The State Police, upon receipt of the fingerprint card, may charge the department for the expenses incurred in processing state and national criminal history record checks. The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the applicant's fingerprints and shall forward the fingerprints to the State Bureau of Identification so that the bureau can conduct state and national criminal history record checks. Except for the portion of the payment, if any, that constitutes the processing fee charged by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, all money received by the State Police for purposes of this paragraph must be paid over to the Treasurer of State. The money must be applied to the expenses of administration incurred by the Department of Public Safety.
(4) The subject of a Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record check may obtain a copy of the criminal history record check by following the procedures outlined in 28 Code of Federal Regulations, Sections 16.32 and 16.33. The subject of a state criminal history record check may inspect and review the criminal history record information pursuant to Title 16, section 709.
(5) State and federal criminal history record information may be used by the department for the purpose of screening each permanency guardian in determining whether the adoption is in the best interests of the child.
(6) Information obtained pursuant to this paragraph is confidential. The results of background checks received by the department are for official use only and may not be disseminated outside the department except to a court considering an adoption petition under this section.
Sec. C-68. 22 MRSA §4051, as corrected by RR 1997, c. 2, §48, is amended to read:
§ 4051. Venue
A petition for termination of parental rights must be brought in the court that issued the final protection order. The court, for the convenience of the parties or other good cause, may transfer the petition to another district or division. A petition for termination of parental rights may also be brought in a Probate Court as part of an adoption proceeding as provided in Title 18-A 18-C, article IX Article 9, when a child protective proceeding has not been initiated.
Sec. C-69. 22 MRSA §4055, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 2001, c. 696, §35, is further amended to read:
(1) Custody has been removed from the parent under:
(a) Section 4035 or 4038;
(b) Title 19-A, section 1502 or 1653;
(c) Section 3792 prior to the effective date of this chapter; or
(d) Title 15, section 3314, subsection 1, paragraph C-1; or
(2) The petition has been filed as part of an adoption proceeding in Title 18-A 18-C, article IX Article 9; and
Sec. C-70. 22 MRSA §4065, as amended by PL 1981, c. 470, Pt. A, §102, is further amended to read:
§ 4065. Department's responsibility after death of committed child
If a child in the custody of the department dies, the department shall arrange and pay for a decent burial for the child. If administration of the deceased child's estate is not commenced, within 60 days after the date of death, by an heir or a creditor, then the department may petition the Probate Court to appoint an administrator and settle the estate of the deceased child pursuant to Title 18-A 18-C.
Sec. C-71. 22 MRSA §4171, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 1995, c. 694, Pt. D, §49 and affected by Pt. E, §2, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-72. 22 MRSA §5106, sub-§2, ¶E, as amended by PL 2011, c. 657, Pt. BB, §9, is further amended to read:
(1) Elderly Householders Tax and Rent Refund Act of 1971;
(2) Priority Social Services Act of 1973;
(3) Chapter 470 of the public laws of 1969 creating the State Housing Authority;
(4) United States Social Security Act of 1935;
(5) United States Housing Act of 1937;
(6) United States Older Americans Act of 1965;
(7) United States Age Discrimination Act of 1967;
(8) Home Based Care Act of 1981;
(9) Congregate Housing Act of 1979;
(10) Adult Day Care Services Act of 1983;
(11) Adult Day Care Licensing Act of 1987;
(12) Adult Protective Services Act of 1981;
(13) The Maine Uniform Probate Code, Title 18-A 18-C;
(14) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990;
(15) The Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000; and
(16) The ADA Amendments Act of 2008;
Sec. C-73. 22 MRSA §8621, sub-§6, as amended by PL 2009, c. 292, §4 and affected by §6, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-74. 23 MRSA §3655, as amended by PL 1979, c. 663, §138, is further amended to read:
§ 3655. Personal injury actions; limitations; damages; notice
Whoever A person who receives any bodily injury or suffers damage in his the person's property through any defect or want of repair or sufficient railing in any highway, town way, causeway or bridge may recover for the same in a civil action, to be commenced within one year from the date of receiving such injury or suffering damage, of the county or town obliged by law to repair the same, if the commissioners of such county or the municipal officers or road commissioners of such town or any person authorized by any commissioner of such county or any municipal officer or road commissioner of such town to act as a substitute for either of them had 24 hours' actual notice of the defect or want of repair, but not exceeding $6,000 in case of a town. If the sufferer had notice of the condition of such way previous to the time of the injury, he the sufferer cannot recover of a town unless he the sufferer has previously notified one of the municipal officers of the defective condition of such way. Any person who sustains injury or damage or some person in his the person's behalf shall, within 180 days thereafter, notify one of the county commissioners of such county or of the municipal officers of such town by letter or otherwise, in writing, setting forth his the person's claim for damages and specifying the nature of his the person's injuries and the nature and location of the defect which that caused such injury. If the life of any person is lost through such deficiency, his the person's executors or administrators may recover of such county or town liable to keep the same in repair, in a civil action, brought for the benefit of the estate of the deceased, such sum as the jury may deem determine reasonable as damages, if the parties liable had said notice of the deficiency which that caused the loss of life. In any action against a town for damages for loss of life permitted under this section, the claim for and award of damages, including costs, against a town and its employees shall must be disposed of as provided under Title 18-A 18-C, section 2-804 2-807, but shall may not exceed $25,000 for each claim and $300,000 for any and all claims arising out of a single occurrence. No damages for the loss of comfort, society and companionship of the deceased shall may be allowed in an action under this section. At the trial of any such action the court may, on motion of either party, order a view of the premises where the defect or want of repair is alleged when it would materially aid in a clear understanding of the case.
Sec. C-75. 24-A MRSA §2208, sub-§1, ¶A, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 677, §3 and affected by §5, is amended to read:
(1) The individual is acting under a valid written power of attorney or acting pursuant to the Uniform Health-care Health Care Decisions Act; or
(2) The individual is the consumer's parent or legal guardian, in which case the authorization is valid only insofar as that parent or legal guardian has the exclusive authority to consent for the health care services received by a minor for which the authorization for payment is sought and only as to those disclosures when the holder of the information can reasonably infer that the parent's or legal guardian's interest in disclosure is not adverse to the consumer's; or
Sec. C-76. 24-A MRSA §4313, sub-§14, as enacted by PL 1999, c. 742, §19, is amended to read:
Sec. C-77. 25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶I, as amended by PL 2015, c. 300, Pt. B, §1, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-78. 25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§3, ¶H, as enacted by PL 2001, c. 52, §7, is amended to read:
Sec. C-79. 25 MRSA §2003, sub-§1, ¶D, as amended by PL 2011, c. 298, §7, is further amended to read:
(1) Full name;
(2) Full current address and addresses for the prior 5 years;
(3) The date and place of birth, height, weight, color of eyes, color of hair, sex and race;
(4) A record of previous issuances of, refusals to issue and revocations of a permit to carry concealed firearms, handguns or other concealed weapons by any issuing authority in the State or any other jurisdiction. The record of previous refusals alone does not constitute cause for refusal and the record of previous revocations alone constitutes cause for refusal only as provided in section 2005; and
(5) Answers to the following questions:
(a) Are you less than 18 years of age?
(b) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this State for a crime under the laws of this State that is punishable by imprisonment for a term of one year or more?
(c) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in any federal court for a crime under the laws of the United States that is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year?
(d) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in another state for a crime that, under the laws of that state, is punishable by a term of imprisonment exceeding one year?
(e) If your answer to the question in division (d) is "yes," is that charged crime classified under the laws of that state as a misdemeanor punishable by a term of imprisonment of 2 years or less?
(f) Is there a formal charging instrument pending against you in another state for a crime punishable in that state by a term of imprisonment of 2 years or less and classified by that state as a misdemeanor, but that is substantially similar to a crime that under the laws of this State is punishable by imprisonment for a term of one year or more?
(g) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you under the laws of the United States, this State or any other state or the Passamaquoddy Tribe or Penobscot Nation in a proceeding in which the prosecuting authority has pleaded that you committed the crime with the use of a firearm against a person or with the use of a dangerous weapon as defined in Title 17-A, section 2, subsection 9, paragraph A?
(h) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this or any other jurisdiction for a juvenile offense that, if committed by an adult, would be a crime described in division (b), (c), (d) or (f) and involves bodily injury or threatened bodily injury against another person?
(i) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this or any other jurisdiction for a juvenile offense that, if committed by an adult, would be a crime described in division (g)?
(j) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this or any other jurisdiction for a juvenile offense that, if committed by an adult, would be a crime described in division (b), (c), (d) or (f), but does not involve bodily injury or threatened bodily injury against another person?
(k) Have you ever been convicted of committing or found not criminally responsible by reason of mental disease or defect of committing a crime described in division (b), (c), (f) or (g)?
(l) Have you ever been convicted of committing or found not criminally responsible by reason of mental disease or defect of committing a crime described in division (d)?
(m) If your answer to the question in division (l) is "yes," was that crime classified under the laws of that state as a misdemeanor punishable by a term of imprisonment of 2 years or less?
(n) Have you ever been adjudicated as having committed a juvenile offense described in division (h) or (i)?
(o) Have you ever been adjudicated as having committed a juvenile offense described in division (j)?
(p) Are you currently subject to an order of a Maine court or an order of a court of the United States or another state, territory, commonwealth or tribe that restrains you from harassing, stalking or threatening your intimate partner, as defined in 18 United States Code, Section 921(a), or a child of your intimate partner, or from engaging in other conduct that would place your intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to that intimate partner or the child?
(q) Are you a fugitive from justice?
(r) Are you a drug abuser, drug addict or drug dependent person?
(s) Do you have a mental disorder that causes you to be potentially dangerous to yourself or others?
(t) Have you been adjudicated to be an incapacitated person pursuant to Title 18-A, Article 5, Parts 3 and 4 and not had that designation removed by an order Do you currently have a guardian or conservator who was appointed for you under Title 18-A 18-C, section 5-307, subsection (b) Article 5, Part 3 or 4?
(u) Have you been dishonorably discharged from the military forces within the past 5 years?
(v) Are you an illegal alien?
(w) Have you been convicted in a Maine court of a violation of Title 17-A, section 1057 within the past 5 years?
(x) Have you been adjudicated in a Maine court within the past 5 years as having committed a juvenile offense involving conduct that, if committed by an adult, would be a violation of Title 17-A, section 1057?
(y) To your knowledge, have you been the subject of an investigation by any law enforcement agency within the past 5 years regarding the alleged abuse by you of family or household members?
(z) Have you been convicted in any jurisdiction within the past 5 years of 3 or more crimes punishable by a term of imprisonment of less than one year or of crimes classified under the laws of a state as a misdemeanor and punishable by a term of imprisonment of 2 years or less?
(aa) Have you been adjudicated in any jurisdiction within the past 5 years to have committed 3 or more juvenile offenses described in division (o)?
(bb) To your knowledge, have you engaged within the past 5 years in reckless or negligent conduct that has been the subject of an investigation by a governmental entity?
(cc) Have you been convicted in a Maine court within the past 5 years of any Title 17-A, chapter 45 drug crime?
(dd) Have you been adjudicated in a Maine court within the past 5 years as having committed a juvenile offense involving conduct that, if committed by an adult, would have been a violation of Title 17-A, chapter 45?
(ee) Have you been adjudged in a Maine court to have committed the civil violation of possession of a useable amount of marijuana, butyl nitrite or isobutyl nitrite in violation of Title 22, section 2383 within the past 5 years?
(ff) Have you been adjudicated in a Maine court within the past 5 years as having committed the juvenile crime defined in Title 15, section 3103, subsection 1, paragraph B of possession of a useable amount of marijuana, as provided in Title 22, section 2383?; and
Sec. C-80. 26 MRSA §875, sub-§1, ¶E, as enacted by PL 2005, c. 383, §23, is amended to read:
Sec. C-81. 28-A MRSA §2508, sub-§2, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 45, Pt. A, §4, is amended to read:
Sec. C-82. 29-A MRSA §1402-A, sub-§4, ¶E, as amended by PL 2007, c. 601, §7 and affected by §9, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-83. 29-A MRSA §1402-A, sub-§5, as amended by PL 2007, c. 601, §8 and affected by §9, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-84. 29-A MRSA §1403, as amended by PL 1995, c. 378, Pt. B, §5, is further amended to read:
§ 1403. Advance health care directive
Subject to available funding, the Secretary of State shall make advance health-care health care directive forms available in offices of the Bureau of Motor Vehicles. The form must be in substantially the form provided in Title 18-A 18-C, section 5-804 5-805 and with the addition of the following information at the end: "Completion of this form is optional."
Sec. C-85. 30-A MRSA §183, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 737, Pt. A, §2 and Pt. C, §106 and amended by PL 1989, c. 6; c. 9, §2; and c. 104, Pt. C, §§8 and 10, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-86. 32 MRSA §9405, sub-§1-A, ¶F, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 170, §8, is amended to read:
(1) Full name;
(2) Full current address and addresses for the prior 5 years;
(3) The date and place of birth, height, weight and color of eyes;
(4) A record of previous issuances of, refusals to issue and renew, suspensions and revocations of a license to be a contract security company. The record of previous refusals to issue alone does not constitute cause for refusal and the record of previous refusals to renew and revocations alone constitutes cause for refusal only as provided in section 9411-A;
(5) The following questions.
(a) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this or any other jurisdiction for a crime which that is punishable by one year or more imprisonment or for any other crime alleged to have been committed by you with the use of a dangerous weapon, as defined in Title 17-A, section 2, subsection 9, or of a firearm against another person?
(b) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this or any other jurisdiction for a juvenile offense which that involves conduct which that, if committed by an adult, would be punishable by one year or more of imprisonment or for any other juvenile offense alleged to have been committed by you with the use of a dangerous weapon, as defined in Title 17-A, section 2, subsection 9, or of a firearm against another person?
(c) Have you ever been convicted of a crime described in division (a) or adjudicated as having committed a juvenile offense as described in division (b)?
(d) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this jurisdiction for any crime enumerated in section 9412?
(e) Is there a formal charging instrument now pending against you in this jurisdiction for a juvenile offense which that involves conduct which that, if committed by an adult, would be a crime enumerated in section 9412?
(f) Have you within the past 5 years been convicted of a crime described in division (d) or adjudicated as having committed a juvenile offense as described in division (e)?
(g) Are you a fugitive from justice?
(h) Are you a drug abuser, drug addict or drug-dependent person?
(i) Do you have a mental disorder which that causes you to be potentially dangerous to yourself or others?
(j) Have you been adjudicated to be an incapacitated person pursuant to Do you currently have a guardian or conservator who was appointed for you under Title 18-A 18-C, article V Article 5, Parts Part 3 and or 4 , and not had that designation removed by an order under Title 18-A, section 5-307, subsection (b)?
(k) Have you been dishonorably discharged from the military forces within the past 5 years?
(l) Are you an illegal alien ?;
(6) A list of employees as of the date the applicant signs the application who will perform security guard functions within the State. This list shall must identify each employee by his the employee's full name, full current address and addresses for the prior 5 years and his the employee's date and place of birth, height, weight and color of eyes. For each employee on this list who will perform security guard functions at the site of a labor dispute or strike, the applicant shall have previously investigated the background of the employee to ensure that the employee meets all of the requirements to be a security guard as contained in section 9410-A, subsection 1. If the employee meets all of the requirements to be a security guard, the applicant shall also submit a statement, signed by the applicant, stating that the applicant has conducted this background investigation and that the employee meets the requirements contained in section 9410-A, subsection 1; and
(7) A photograph of the applicant taken within 6 months of the date the applicant affixes his the applicant's signature to the application; and
Sec. C-87. 32 MRSA §9410-A, sub-§1, ¶J, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 170, §12, is amended to read:
Sec. C-88. 32 MRSA §16202, sub-§12, as enacted by PL 2005, c. 65, Pt. A, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. C-89. 33 MRSA §480, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1983, c. 748, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. C-90. 33 MRSA §1603-116, sub-§(b), as repealed and replaced by PL 1983, c. 816, Pt. A, §40, is amended to read:
(b) A lien under this section is prior to all other liens and encumbrances on a unit except: (1) Liens and encumbrances recorded before the recordation of the declaration; (2) A first mortgage recorded before or after the date on which the assessment sought to be enforced becomes delinquent; and (3) Liens for real estate taxes and other governmental assessments or charges against the unit. This subsection does not affect the priority of mechanics' or materialmen's liens, or the priority of liens for other assessments made by the association. The lien under this section is not subject to the provisions of Title 14, section 4651 and Title 18-A 18-C, Part Article 2, as they or their equivalents may be amended or modified from time to time.
Sec. C-91. 33 MRSA §1669, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 734, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. C-92. 34-A MRSA §1214-A, sub-§3, as enacted by PL 2011, c. 241, §3, is amended to read:
Sec. C-93. 34-A MRSA §3040-A, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2013, c. 80, §8, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-94. 34-A MRSA §3040-A, sub-§4, as amended by PL 2005, c. 506, §9, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-95. 34-B MRSA §3831, sub-§6, as amended by PL 2009, c. 651, §10, is further amended to read:
This subsection does not create an affirmative obligation of a psychiatric hospital to admit a person consistent with the person's advance health care directive. This subsection does not create an affirmative obligation on the part of the psychiatric hospital or treatment provider to provide the treatment consented to in the person's advance health care directive if the physician or psychologist evaluating or treating the person or the chief administrative officer of the psychiatric hospital determines that the treatment is not in the best interest of the person.
Sec. C-96. 34-B MRSA §3861, sub-§3, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2007, c. 580, §2, is amended to read:
(1) The name of the patient, the patient’s diagnosis and the unit on which the patient is hospitalized;
(2) The date that the patient was committed to the institution or institute and the period of the court-ordered commitment;
(3) A statement by the primary treating physician that the patient lacks capacity to give informed consent to the proposed treatment. The statement must include documentation of a 2nd opinion that the patient lacks that capacity, given by a professional qualified to issue such an opinion who does not provide direct care to the patient but who may work for the institute or institution;
(4) A description of the proposed course of treatment, including specific medications, routes of administration and dose ranges, proposed alternative medications or routes of administration, if any, and the circumstances under which any proposed alternative would be used;
(5) A description of how the proposed treatment will benefit the patient and ameliorate identified signs and symptoms of the patient's psychiatric illness;
(6) A listing of the known or anticipated risks and side effects of the proposed treatment and how the prescribing physician will monitor, manage and minimize the risks and side effects;
(7) Documentation of consideration of any underlying medical condition of the patient that contraindicates the proposed treatment; and
(8) Documentation of consideration of any advance health-care health care directive given in accordance with Title 18-A 18-C, section 5-802 5-803 and any declaration regarding medical treatment of psychotic disorders executed in accordance with section 11001.
Sec. C-97. 34-B MRSA §3862, sub-§1, ¶B, as amended by PL 2009, c. 651, §11, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-98. 34-B MRSA §5001, sub-§4, ¶B, as enacted by PL 1983, c. 459, §7, is amended to read:
Sec. C-99. 34-B MRSA §5001, sub-§7, as amended by PL 1995, c. 560, Pt. K, §40, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-100. 35-A MRSA §4355, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 141, Pt. A, §6, is amended to read:
Sec. C-101. 35-A MRSA §4391, sub-§5, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 141, Pt. A, §6, is amended to read:
Sec. C-102. 35-A MRSA §4392, sub-§3, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 141, Pt. A, §6, is amended to read:
Sec. C-103. 36 MRSA §606, as amended by PL 2017, c. 288, Pt. A, §39, is further amended to read:
§ 606. Tax priority; deceased's personal property
If a personal property tax has been assessed upon the estate of a deceased person, or if a person assessed for a personal property tax has died, the personal representative, after the personal representative has satisfied the first 4 priorities set forth in Title 18-A 18-C, section 3-805, shall, from any estate that has come to the personal representative's hands in such capacity, if such estate is sufficient therefor, pay the personal property tax so assessed to the personal representative under Title 18-A 18-C, section 3-709. In default of such payment the personal representative is personally liable for the tax to the extent of the estate that passed through the personal representative's hands that was not used to satisfy claims or expenses with a higher priority. To the extent that the personal representative is not assessed, the successors to the decedent's taxed property shall pay the tax assessed.
Sec. C-104. 36 MRSA §4079, as amended by PL 2007, c. 154, §1, is further amended to read:
§ 4079. Civil action by State; bond
Personal representatives are liable to the State on their administration bonds for all taxes assessable under this chapter and interest on those taxes. Whenever no administration bond is otherwise required, and except as otherwise provided in this section, the Judge of Probate Court, notwithstanding any provision of Title 18-A 18-C, shall require a bond payable to the judge or the judge's successor court sufficient to secure the payment of all estate taxes and interest conditioned in substance to pay all estate taxes due to the State from the estate of the deceased with interest thereon. A bond to secure the payment of estate taxes is not required when the Judge of Probate Court finds that any estate tax due and to become due the State is reasonably secured by the lien upon real estate as provided in this chapter or by any other adequate security. An action for the recovery of estate taxes and interest lies on either of the bonds.
Sec. C-105. 36 MRSA §4118, as enacted by PL 2011, c. 380, Pt. M, §9, is amended to read:
§ 4118. Civil action by State; bond
Personal representatives are liable to the State on their administration bonds for all taxes assessable under this chapter and interest on those taxes. If no administration bond is otherwise required and except as otherwise provided in this section, the judge of probate Probate Court, notwithstanding any provision of Title 18-A 18-C, shall require a bond payable to the judge or the judge's successor court sufficient to secure the payment of all estate taxes and interest conditioned in substance to pay all estate taxes due to the State from the estate of the deceased with interest thereon. A bond to secure the payment of estate taxes is not required when the judge of probate Probate Court finds that any estate tax due and to become due the State is reasonably secured by the lien upon real estate as provided in this chapter or by any other adequate security. An action for the recovery of estate taxes and interest lies on either of the bonds.
Sec. C-106. 36 MRSA §4641-C, sub-§11, as amended by PL 2005, c. 397, Pt. C, §21 and affected by §22, is further amended to read:
Sec. C-107. 36 MRSA §4641-D, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 568, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. C-108. 38 MRSA §1362, sub-§1-D, ¶A, as enacted by PL 1993, c. 355, §59, is amended to read:
Sec. C-109. 39-A MRSA §104, first ¶, as amended by PL 1995, c. 297, §1, is further amended to read:
An employer who has secured the payment of compensation in conformity with sections 401 to 407 is exempt from civil actions, either at common law or under sections 901 to 908; Title 14, sections 8101 to 8118; and Title 18-A 18-C, section 2-804 2-807, involving personal injuries sustained by an employee arising out of and in the course of employment, or for death resulting from those injuries. An employer that uses a private employment agency for temporary help services is entitled to the same immunity from civil actions by employees of the temporary help service as is granted with respect to the employer's own employees as long as the temporary help service has secured the payment of compensation in conformity with sections 401 to 407. "Temporary help services" means a service where an agency assigns its own employees to a 3rd party to work under the direction and control of the 3rd party to support or supplement the 3rd party's work force in work situations such as employee absences, temporary skill shortages, seasonal work load conditions and special assignments and projects. These exemptions from liability apply to all employees, supervisors, officers and directors of the employer for any personal injuries arising out of and in the course of employment, or for death resulting from those injuries. These exemptions also apply to occupational diseases sustained by an employee or for death resulting from those diseases. These exemptions do not apply to an illegally employed minor as described in section 408, subsection 2.
PART D
Sec. D-1. 22 MRSA §4038-E, sub-§11, ¶A, as amended by PL 2011, c. 420, Pt. I, §4 and affected by §5, is further amended to read:
Sec. D-2. 22 MRSA §4056, sub-§1, as corrected by RR 2009, c. 2, §57, is amended to read:
PART E
Sec. E-1. 33 MRSA §1021, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 238, §1, is amended to read:
Sec. E-2. 36 MRSA §4641-C, sub-§19, as amended by PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. I, §7 and affected by §15, is further amended to read:
Sec. E-3. 36 MRSA §4641-C, sub-§20, as enacted by PL 2001, c. 559, Pt. I, §8 and affected by §15, is amended to read:
Sec. E-4. 36 MRSA §4641-C, sub-§21 is enacted to read:
Sec. E-5. 36 MRSA §4641-D, sub-§4, as amended by PL 2007, c. 437, §14, is further amended to read:
Sec. E-6. 36 MRSA §4641-D, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 568, §2, is amended to read:
Sec. E-7. 36 MRSA §4641-D, sub-§7 is enacted to read:
PART F
Sec. F-1. Effective date. Parts A to E of this Act take effect July 1, 2019.
PART G
Sec. G-1. Maine Comments. The Probate and Trust Law Advisory Commission, in consultation with the Family Law Advisory Commission and other interested parties, shall compose Maine Uniform Probate Code Comments that explain and aid in the interpretation of the Maine Uniform Probate Code as enacted by this Act. The Probate and Trust Law Advisory Commission shall report the recommended Maine Uniform Probate Code Comments to the joint standing committee of the 129th Legislature having jurisdiction over judiciary matters no later than January 15, 2019.
Sec. G-2. Legislation. The joint standing committee of the 129th Legislature having jurisdiction over judiciary matters may report out legislation to the First Regular Session of the 129th Legislature to correct errors and inconsistencies created by recent legislation and this Act and address any additional issues raised in the recodification and revision of the Maine Probate Code.
Sec. G-3. Effective date. This Part is effective 90 days after the adjournment of the Second Regular Session of the 128th Legislature.’
Amend the bill by relettering or renumbering any nonconsecutive Part letter or section number to read consecutively.
summary
The bill repeals the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 18-A and replaces it with Title 18-C. All references in this summary are to Title 18-C unless otherwise indicated.
This amendment does the following.
In Article 1, section 1-308, the amendment capitalizes "law court."
In Article 2, section 2-106, subsection 3, the amendment inserts "to" to use consistent terminology in describing the nearness of generations for inheritance purposes.
In Article 2, section 2-113, the amendment inserts "through intestate succession" to clarify that the section prohibits a parent inheriting from the child in specific circumstances, but does not prohibit inheritance through a will or other instrument.
In Article 2, Part 1, subpart 2, the amendment replaces language to make the language consistent with how the Maine Parentage Act in the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 19-A, chapter 61 provides for the establishment and determination of parentage.
In section 2-208, subsection 1, paragraph B, the amendment inserts "except as provided in paragraph C" to exclude a category of trusts in using the particular procedure to determine the value of property. New paragraph C describes the value of the surviving spouse's beneficial interest in a trust from which distributions of both income and principal to the surviving spouse are subject to the trustee's discretion.
In section 2-403, the amendment inserts "of tangible personal property, including but not limited to" to appropriately reference the exemption amounts for the various categories of personal property. The specific amounts of the exemptions are listed in Title 14, section 4422.
In section 2-705, the amendment replaces the section to be consistent with the establishment of parent-child relationships under the Maine Parentage Act.
In Article 3, section 3-607, the amendment inserts a new subsection 2, which requires the court to set and hold a hearing on a petition filed to restrain the personal representative of an estate from carrying out specific actions. Notice must be given to the personal representative, the personal representative's attorney and any other parties named defendant in the petition.
In section 3-711, the amendment inserts "except as limited by this section" and it reinstates current Maine law that prohibits the personal representative from selling or transferring any interest in real property of the estate without giving notice at least 10 days prior to the sale or transfer, unless the will authorizes the personal representative to sell or transfer real estate without the notice.
In section 3-1201, subsection 1, paragraph A, the amendment changes the maximum value of property for which an affidavit of a small estate may be filed from $50,000 in the bill to $40,000. Current law is $20,000.
In Article 4, section 4-204, the amendment retains current law requiring a certificate from another jurisdiction that is no more than 60 days old as evidence of a foreign personal representative's current authority.
In Article 5, Parts 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the bill are deleted and replaced with a version of the Uniform Guardianship, Conservatorship and Other Protective Arrangements Act, UGCOPAA, revised by the Probate and Trust Law Advisory Commission, PATLAC, and the Family Law Advisory Commission, FLAC, resulting in new Parts 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
The bill was carried over to the Second Regular Session of the 128th Legislature to allow PATLAC, with the assistance of FLAC, to review the UGCOPAA, approved by the Uniform Law Commission in July 2017. This amendment is based on the recommendations of PATLAC for Article 5, Parts 1, general provisions; 3, adult guardianship; 4, conservatorship; and 5, other protective arrangements, and FLAC for Parts 1 and 2, minor guardianship.
The following is from the Uniform Law Commission's Prefatory Note for the Uniform Guardianship, Conservatorship and Other Protective Arrangements Act.
The amendment strikes Article 5, Part 1 of the bill, and adopts the UGCOPAA Article 1 with the following changes.
The amendment includes 2 additional definitions. "Best interest of the minor" cross-references the meaning of "best interest" as defined in Title 19-A, section 1653, subsection 3. The other additional definition is "suitable" to describe appropriate qualifications for a person to be appointed as a guardian for a minor.
The amendment retains from current law provisions governing the facility of transfer of money or personal property to a minor. It is currently Title 18-A, section 5-104, and was not included in the UGCOPAA. The amendment clarifies that a person who receives money or property for a minor may receive reimbursement for necessary expenses that benefit the minor.
The amendment addresses concerns raised about whether a guardian or conservator can waive any required notice on behalf of the individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship. This amendment provides that an appointed guardian or an appointed conservator may not waive the right to notice on behalf of an individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship.
The amendment makes clear that the role of a guardian ad litem is to identify and represent the individual's best interest or perform other duties the court directs. It provides that the same guardian ad litem may be appointed to represent more than one individual as long as no conflict of interest or potential conflict of interest exists. It also clarifies that the order appointing the guardian ad litem must state the responsibility for paying the guardian ad litem fees.
The amendment requires additional notice be given when a person interested in the welfare of a respondent but not otherwise entitled to notice requests to receive notice of proceedings. Notice of the request must be given to the guardian or conservator, as well as the individual subject to the guardianship or conservatorship, and they are provided a 60-day window during which to object to giving notice to the person requesting notice. If there is an objection, the court must hold a hearing on the request and make a decision on whether to grant the request after the hearing.
The amendment requires the person petitioning to be appointed the guardian or conservator to disclose bankruptcy and criminal background information. In addition, a guardian or conservator is prohibited from engaging an agent who the guardian or conservator knows has been convicted of certain serious crimes without the approval of the court.
The amendment provides that the court, after notice to all interested persons, on the petition of an interested person, may review the propriety of the employment of any person by the guardian or conservator, as well as the reasonableness of compensation. The court may order anyone who has received excessive compensation to make appropriate refunds.
The amendment requires a person who refuses to recognize the authority of a guardian or conservator to report to the court when the person believes the guardian's or conservator's proposed action would be inconsistent with the statute, or the person believes the person subject to guardianship or conservatorship is subjected to abuse, neglect, exploitation or abandonment by the guardian or conservator or someone acting for or with the guardian or conservator.
The amendment establishes a fee for registering a guardianship or conservatorship appointment order from another jurisdiction.
The amendment clarifies that an individual subject to guardianship or conservatorship, or a person interested in the individual's welfare, can report a grievance to the court in writing or another record. The report is not required to be formally filed.
The Family Law Advisory Commission was charged with reviewing and making recommendations concerning parental rights and responsibilities in the minor guardianship statutes by Resolve 2015, chapter 73, section 3. The provisions of the UGCOPAA pertaining to minor guardianship depart in significant respects from existing Maine law and practice. In addition, the UGCOPAA does not reflect many of the important reforms recommended to the Joint Standing Committee on Judiciary in FLAC's January 15, 2017 report and recommendations, which were based on the findings from its comprehensive review of Maine minor guardianship laws and practice, including valuable contributions from dozens of Maine stakeholders. This amendment incorporates the changes to Article 5, Part 2 contained in the bill recommended by FLAC and does not adopt the UGCOPAA with regard to minor guardianships.
The amendment provides that when the court is appointing a guardian of a minor as requested by a parent, the minor, if at least 14 years of age, the other parent or other person who has care or custody of the minor may object or terminate the appointment. The objection does not preclude the court from appointing the guardian if all other requirements for appointment, including appointment over the objection of a parent, are met. The court may treat the filing of an objection as a petition for the appointment of an emergency or an interim guardian and proceed accordingly.
The amendment establishes grounds for appointment of a suitable guardian based on the Maine Supreme Judicial Court's rulings pertaining to the fundamental rights of parents. It requires that, before a guardian may be appointed for a minor, the court must find that the parents consent, that all parental rights have been terminated or that by clear and convincing evidence the parents are unwilling or unable to exercise their parental rights. Such evidence includes, but is not limited to, that the parent is currently unwilling or unable to meet the child's needs and that will have a substantial adverse effect on the child's well-being if the child lives with the parent, or that the parent has failed, without good cause, to maintain a parental relationship with the child including, but not limited to, failure to maintain regular contact with the child for a length of time that evidences an intent to abandon the child.
The amendment replaces the temporary guardian provisions with the authorization to appoint a guardian on an emergency basis. The duration of the guardian's authority may not exceed 90 days and the guardian may exercise only those powers specified in the order. Reasonable notice of the time and place of the hearing on the petition for appointment must be given unless it could result in substantial harm to the minor. If the guardian is appointed without notice, notice of the appointment must be given within 48 hours, and the court must schedule a hearing within 14 days but not less than 7 days after the issuance of the order. Counsel for a parent may request that the hearing take place sooner. The petitioner for the emergency appointment bears the burden of proof on the appropriateness of the appointment.
The court's order must indicate whether there are any child support orders currently in effect and the effect of the guardianship order on the child support orders. The court must consider whether a parent is to pay child support to the guardian, and must treat the guardian as a "caretaker relative" for computation of a parental support obligation under Title 19-A, section 2006, subsection 4.
The amendment authorizes the court to direct an employee of the Department of Health and Human Services to provide information relevant to a guardianship proceeding. The court must protect the confidentiality of information.
The court must appoint a person or persons who are nominated by the minor, if the minor is at least 14 years of age, in accordance with the other appointment requirements. A nonconsenting parent whose parental rights have not been terminated is entitled to court-appointed counsel if indigent. The court may also appoint counsel for any indigent guardian or petitioner if the parent has counsel.
A minor who is 14 years of age or older must receive notice of proceedings subsequent to the appointment of a guardian. A minor may appear with or through counsel, but the court may still require the minor to be present for some or all of a hearing or other proceeding.
The amendment provides that if the petition for guardianship of a minor is filed by or with the consent of a parent, the written informed consent of the parent is required. A parent who consents to the guardianship after the petition is filed must sign the written consent form when consenting to the appointment.
The court may specify the duration of the appointment, and the term may be extended or otherwise modified.
The court may enter an interim order appointing a guardian for a period of time of up to 6 months or pending the court's order if necessary to provide for the minor's housing, health, education, medical or other essential needs prior to the hearing. The interim order must meet all the other requirements, including notice, and may be extended or modified.
The court may refer the parties to mediation if mediation services are available at reasonable or no cost.
If a party alleges in an affidavit or a pleading under oath that the health, safety or liberty of a party or the minor would be jeopardized by disclosure of identifying information, the information must be sealed and not disclosed unless ordered by the court after notice and hearing.
The amendment specifies the terms that must be included in the order appointing a guardian for a minor. If any orders concerning custody or other parental rights of the minor are in effect at the time of the appointment of the guardian, the order must refer to such orders and indicate the effect of the appointment on the rights and responsibilities set forth in the other orders.
An order appointing a guardian must specify the rights and responsibilities the minor's parent retains. A parent may copetition and be appointed as a coguardian of the minor if the court determines the joint appointment with a non-parent is in the minor's best interest and is made with the parent's consent.
The court may require the guardian to submit regular status reports about the minor, to be submitted under oath or affirmation to the court and served on the parent on an annual basis or under other conditions set by the court. The contents of status reports are confidential and may not be released to a nonparty except by order of the court. A parent may petition the court to seek a status report when one is not required. A person who is not a parent who is interested in the minor's welfare may petition the court to seek a status report based upon specific concerns about the minor's care. If there is an active guardian ad litem, the guardian ad litem may also receive the report. The court must accept any information submitted by a minor 14 years of age or older regarding the guardianship.
A guardian, a parent of the minor, a person interested in the welfare of the minor or the minor, if 14 years of age or older, may file a motion asking the court to modify the terms of the order or take other action in the best interest of the minor. The court may identify certain requirements that must be met before making modifications.
The amendment provides for the termination of the appointment of a guardian or conservator. A minor, if 14 years of age or older, a parent or a person interested in the welfare of the minor may petition for removal of a guardian on the ground the removal would be in the best interest of the minor or for other good cause. A guardian may petition to resign. The court may appoint an additional or successor guardian.
Except upon a petition to terminate the guardianship filed by the parent, the court may not terminate the guardianship without the consent of the guardian unless the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the termination is in the best interest of the minor. If a parent petitions for the termination of the guardianship, the party opposing the parent's termination bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the parent seeking to terminate the guardianship is currently unfit to regain custody of the minor. If the party fails to prove the parent is unfit, the court must terminate the guardianship and make any further order that may be appropriate. This section cross-references the standard for finding that a parent is unfit.
In determining the best interest of the minor in ordering transitional arrangements, the court may consider the minor's relationship with the guardians and the need for stability.
In any guardianship proceeding, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor.
This amendment strikes Article 5, Part 3 of the bill and adopts the UGCOPAA Article 3 with the following changes.
The amendment provides a 3rd criterion for the appointment of a guardian for an adult: that the appointment is necessary or desirable as a means of enabling the respondent to meet essential requirements for physical health, safety and self-care. This is intended to preclude the appointment of a guardian for an adult when the guardianship would not benefit the adult.
The amendment requires that a petition for guardianship include the attorney's telephone number and bar registration number if the petitioner has an attorney.
The amendment requires the visitor appointed by the court to include in the report whether or not the respondent wishes to contest any aspect of the proceedings or to seek any limitation on the proposed guardian's powers. This is in addition to a recommendation whether an attorney should be appointed to represent the respondent and several other items that must be included in the report. The visitor must also include whether a further professional evaluation of the respondent is recommended.
The UGCOPAA does not require an initial professional evaluation; this amendment requires a professional evaluation in every adult guardianship.
The amendment provides that the court is required to appoint an attorney for the respondent, in addition to in the 3 fact situations presented in the UGCOPAA, when it comes to the court's attention that the respondent wishes to contest any aspect of the proceeding or to seek any limitation on the proposed guardian's powers. The other fact situations in which appointment of an attorney is mandatory are: when requested by the respondent, when recommended by the visitor, and when the court determines the respondent needs representation.
The amendment revises which professionals are appropriate for conducting an evaluation and limits it to licensed physicians and psychologists approved by the court and qualified to conduct the evaluation.
The amendment recognizes that an agent appointed by the respondent in an advance health care directive is, if otherwise qualified, eligible for appointment as the guardian at the 4th level of priority.
The amendment continues the disqualification for appointment as a guardian an owner, operator or employee of a long-term care institution in which the respondent is receiving care, unless the owner, operator or employee is related to the respondent.
The amendment provides that if the order of appointment does not completely remove the right to marry but allows the adult subject to guardianship to marry if certain conditions are satisfied, the order must state the conditions as well as the findings on which those conditions are based.
Consistent with the UGCOPAA, this amendment provides for specific notice requirements for numerous interested parties, but reduces the notice requirements for notice of the appointment from what is required under the UGCOPAA. This amendment retains required notice by the appointed guardian to the adult subject to guardianship and all other persons required to receive notice under section 5-303, rather than duplicating the notice requirements under section 5-310.
With regard to the appointment of an emergency guardian, this amendment provides that the initial appointment may not exceed 60 days, but that the emergency appointment may be extended by up to 120 days. This amendment adopts the notice requirements for filing a petition for an emergency guardian that are in the bill, that is, that the petition must notify, orally or in writing, the respondent as well as the respondent's family and any person who is serving as the guardian or conservator or who has care and custody of the respondent. If the petitioner believes giving prior notice would put the respondent at substantial risk of abuse, neglect or exploitation, the petitioner must so state in an affidavit.
If the court appoints the emergency guardian without notice and hearing, notice of the emergency appointment must be provided within 48 hours of the appointment. This amendment provides that if any person objects to the appointment of the emergency guardian, the court must hold a hearing within 14 days after the appointment.
The amendment modifies the duties of a guardian to include the authority to administer assets of a value of $5,000 or less.
The amendment differs from the UGCOPAA by requiring the person seeking appointment as guardian to file the plan for the care of the adult with the petition for appointment. When there is a subsequent change in circumstances or the guardian seeks to deviate significantly from the plan, the guardian must file with the court a revised plan for the care of the adult. The plan must contain specific elements. The persons required to receive notice of the petition must also receive a copy of the plan and any revised plan. The court is required to review the plan and any revised plan, and consider objections. The court may schedule a hearing on any revised plan and may not approve the revised plan until 30 days after filing.
The amendment provides that the guardian must file a report with the court at least annually. After notice and hearing, the court may approve the guardian's report, which creates a rebuttable presumption that the report is accurate as to a matter adequately disclosed in the report.
The amendment strikes Article 5, Part 4 of the bill and adopts the UGCOPAA, Article 4 with the following changes.
Throughout Part 4, this amendment establishes that the court is required to consider the wishes of a minor who is at least 14 years of age, rather than 12 years of age as provided in the UGCOPAA.
The amendment provides that a petition for conservatorship must include, along with other specifically identified information, the name and contact information for an agent designated by the respondent in an advance health care directive. This amendment requires that a petition for conservatorship include the attorney's telephone number and bar registration number if the petitioner has an attorney.
The amendment does not include the provisions of the UGCOPAA pertaining to property while a petition for conservatorship is pending, but instead includes the provisions of current law in Title 18-A, section 5-404 authorizing a person to petition for the appointment of a conservator or for any other appropriate protective order when the person is any of the following: the person to be protected; any person who is interested in the estate, affairs or welfare of the person to be protected; and any person who would be adversely affected by lack of effective management of the property and affairs of the person to be protected.
The amendment provides that the petition for conservatorship must be personally served on the respondent at least 14 days prior to the hearing on the petition. Notice must also be provided 14 days before the hearing to all the other persons required to receive notice.
The amendment requires the court to appoint a visitor when the respondent is an adult, unless the adult is represented by an attorney.
The visitor must file a report at least 10 days before any hearing on the petition. The report must include whether or not the respondent wants to challenge any aspect of the proceeding or to seek any limitation on the conservator's powers. The report must also contain a recommendation concerning whether a further professional evaluation is necessary.
The amendment requires the court to appoint an attorney, in addition to the circumstances provided in the UGCOPAA, when it comes to the court's attention that the respondent wishes to contest any aspect of the proceeding or to seek any limitation on the proposed conservator's powers.
The amendment deviates from the UGCOPAA by not requiring but authorizing the court to appoint an attorney to represent the parent of a minor who is the subject of a conservatorship proceeding.
The UGCOPAA does not require an initial professional evaluation; this amendment requires a professional evaluation in every adult conservatorship. This amendment revises which professionals are appropriate for conducting an evaluation, and limits it to licensed physicians and psychologists approved by the court and qualified to conduct the evaluation.
The individual conducting the professional evaluation must file the evaluation with the court at least 10 days before any hearing on the petition.
The amendment continues the disqualification for appointment as a conservator an owner, operator or employee of a long-term care institution in which the respondent is receiving care, unless the owner, operator or employee is related to the respondent.
Consistent with the UGCOPAA, this amendment provides for specific notice requirements for numerous interested parties, but reduces the notice requirements for notice of the appointment from what is required under the UGCOPAA. This amendment retains required notice by the appointed guardian to the adult subject to guardianship and all other persons required to receive notice under section 5-403, rather than duplicating the notice requirements under section 5-411.
With regard to the appointment of an emergency conservator, this amendment provides that the initial appointment may not exceed 60 days, but that the emergency appointment may be extended by up to 120 days. This amendment adopts the notice requirements for filing a petition for an emergency guardian that are in the bill, that is, that the petition must notify, orally or in writing, the respondent as well as the respondent's family and any person who is serving as the guardian or conservator or who has care and custody of the respondent. If the petitioner believes giving prior notice would put the respondent at substantial risk of abuse, neglect or exploitation, the petitioner must so state in an affidavit.
If the court appoints the emergency conservator without notice and hearing, notice of the emergency appointment must be provided within 48 hours of the appointment. This amendment provides that if any person objects to the appointment of the emergency conservator, the court must hold a hearing within 14 days after the appointment.
The amendment differs from the UGCOPAA by requiring the person seeking appointment as conservator to file the plan for protecting, managing, expending and distributing assets of the conservatorship estate with the petition for appointment. When there is a subsequent change in circumstances or the conservator seeks to deviate significantly from the plan, the conservator must file with the court a revised plan for protecting, managing, expending and distributing assets of the conservatorship estate. The plan must contain specific elements. The persons required to receive notice of the petition must also receive a copy of the plan and any revised plan. The court is required to review the plan and any revised plan, and consider objections. The court may schedule a hearing on any revised plan and may not approve the revised plan until 30 days after filing.
The amendment requires the conservator to include a credit report of the individual subject to conservatorship in the report and accounting submitted to the court. The credit report must be kept confidential.
The conservator may petition the court for approval of the report or accounting filed with the court. An order, after notice and hearing, approving a final report or accounting discharges the conservator from all liabilities, claims and causes of action by a person given notice of the report and the hearing as to a matter adequately disclosed in the report or accounting.
The amendment provides that when the individual subject to conservatorship dies, and no personal representative has been appointed for 40 days, the conservator may apply to the court to exercise the powers of a personal representative. The conservator must give notice to any person nominated as personal representative in the will of which the conservator is aware, all of the decedent's heirs and all devisees of the will. This is an expansion from the UGCOPAA.
The amendment provides that if the individual who is subject to conservatorship seeks to remove the conservator, the court must appoint an attorney if the individual is not already represented by one.
The amendment provides that if the individual who is subject to conservatorship seeks to terminate or modify the terms of the conservatorship, the court must appoint an attorney if the individual is not already represented by one.
The amendment adopts Article 5 of the UGCOPAA as Part 5 of Article 5, with the following changes.
The amendment clarifies that one or more protective arrangements may be appropriate in any given circumstance.
The amendment provides that a petition for one or more protective arrangements must include the name and address of the respondent's spouse or domestic partner, if the respondent has one.
The amendment provides that the court must appoint an attorney to represent the respondent, in addition to the 3 circumstances in the UGCOPAA, when it comes to the court's attention that the respondent wishes to contest any aspect of the proceeding or to seek any limitation on the proposed protective arrangement.
The UGCOPAA provides that a hearing may proceed without the respondent in attendance only if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that at least one of several circumstances exist. This amendment adds 2 additional circumstances: if the respondent is represented by an attorney and the attorney represents that the respondent does not want to attend the hearing; and if the visitor has confirmed with the respondent that the respondent has no objection to the protective arrangements and that the respondent does not wish to attend the hearing.
Article 5, Part 6 in the amendment is Part 5 of the bill, and Article 5, Part 7 in the amendment is Part 6 in the bill. The only changes from the bill are to renumber and fix cross-references and to address the changes in the UGCOPAA that delete the use of the concept and the term "incapacitated person." The amendment uses the term "individual subject to guardianship" to be consistent with new Part 3. It also replaces the term "ward" with "individual subject to guardianship."
With regard to the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 18-C, section 5-710, the Legislature intends to continue the prior practice that the State is immune from suit on all tort claims seeking recovery of damages as public guardian or public conservator, but that the surety is responsible for all risk of loss for assets managed by the public guardian or public conservator.
Article 5, Part 8 in the amendment is Part 7 in the bill. The only changes from the bill are to renumber and fix cross-references.
Article 5, Part 9 in the amendment is Part 8 in the bill. The only changes from the bill are to renumber and fix cross-references.
Article 6 of the bill adopts the Uniform Probate Code provisions concerning nonprobate transfers, except that it does not include Part 4, the Uniform Real Property Transfer on Death Act. The Uniform Real Property Transfer on Death Act was proposed as part of L.D. 969, "An Act Regarding Nonprobate Transfers on Death."
This amendment includes the Uniform Real Property Transfer on Death Act as a new Part 4 to Article 6. The text is based on L.D. 969, with the following amendments.
It amends the definition of "joint owner" to remove references to tenancies by the entirety and community property, which are not recognized concepts in Maine.
It clarifies that the definition of "person" includes a trustee but not a business trust or other trust.
It provides that the transfer on death deed can be used only when the property is transferred for no consideration. This is consistent with exemption from the real estate transfer tax for transfers accomplished by transfer on death deeds.
It explicitly applies the protection of the improvident transfers of title law to transfer on death deeds. It provides that a transfer on death deed can be interpreted as a transfer under the improvident transfers of title law when it is executed as well as when it is recorded, as both are opportunities for undue influence. It also confirms that all criminal and civil remedies are available against transfers of property unlawfully obtained through a transfer on death deed.
It makes clear that the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 18-C, section 6-412 provides the details about the permissibility of inter vivos transfers of property even after a transfer on death deed is executed.
It establishes that the beneficiary of a transfer on death deed may file for recording a notice of death affidavit with the registry of deeds where the transfer on death deed was recorded. This filing clarifies that ownership of the property is now held by the beneficiary. It requires the register of deeds to return the original notice of death affidavit to the person who filed it and mail a copy to the municipality in which the property is located. The filing of the notice of death affidavit is not a condition to the transfer of title.
It establishes the effective date of July 1, 2019.
The amendment makes no changes to Article 7, except that it corrects application dates and removes unnecessary transition provisions.
In Article 8, section 8-301, subsection 2, paragraph F, the amendment changes "natural and adopting parents" to "former and adopting parents" to be consistent with changes to Article 9 and the Maine Parentage Act.
The changes to Article 9 are based on the Family Law Advisory Commission's recommendations pursuant to Resolve 2015, chapter 73, section 3. The Family Law Advisory Commission submitted reports to the Joint Standing Committee on Judiciary in January 2017 and January 2018.
Several revisions to the Adoption Act are essential to ensure that it is consistent with the Maine Parentage Act, which became effective July 1, 2016. The current Adoption Act reflects a far more limited view of parentage than is now embodied in Maine family law. The proposed revisions include cross-references to the Maine Parentage Act's definition of "parent" and routes to establishing parentage set forth in the Maine Parentage Act, as well as the use of gender-neutral language.
The amendment expressly authorizes the court to refer the parties to mediation if mediation services are available at reasonable or no cost.
The amendment revises the provisions addressing the establishment of parentage to be consistent with case law regarding the constitutional rights of parents.
The amendment prohibits a petition for termination of parental rights as part of a petition for adoption brought solely by another parent of the child unless the adoption is sought to confirm the parentage status of the petitioning parent.
The amendment includes the grounds for termination of parental rights based on written, informed, voluntary consent or a finding by the court that termination is in the best interest of the child and the parent is unfit. The amendment also permits a court to consider the extent to which the parent had opportunities to rehabilitate and to reunify with the child in making the determination.
The amendment clarifies when consent to adoption is not required of a putative parent.
The amendment clarifies that a study and report may be waived in an adoption when the petitioner is a relative of the child or the spouse or domestic partner of the child's parent.
The amendment clarifies that the Department of Health and Human Services or a private adoption placement agency is required to make reasonable efforts to collect information pertaining to the background of a child who is the subject of an adoption petition.
The adoption laws are amended to include a provision confirming the broad effects of the adoption on the adoptee's legal relationship with the adoptee's former parent, consistent with the amendment to the inheritance provisions in Article 2, Part 1, subpart 2. The amendment provides that an adoptee inherits from the adoptee's former parents only if so provided in the adoption decree.
The amendment changes the law regarding annulment of adoptions. It prohibits the filing of a petition for annulment after one year. The court may order an annulment of an adoption decree based on findings by clear and convincing evidence that the adoption was obtained as a result of fraud, duress or illegal procedure. If the adoptee is a minor at the time of the petition to annul, the court must appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor and sustain the decree unless the court makes a specific finding that the decree is not in the best interest of the adoptee.
Part C updates cross-references found elsewhere in the Maine Revised Statutes to refer to the new Title 18-C provisions.
In Part D, the amendment amends the provisions governing inheritance under the child protection laws concerning termination of parental rights and permanency guardian adoption to be consistent with the Maine Parentage Act and the changes in Article 2, Part 1, Subpart 2.
In Part E, the amendment amends the real estate transfer tax law to explicitly exempt transfer via a transfer on death deed from the application of the tax and exempts the transfer from the requirement that a declaration of value statement be filed.
In Part F, the amendment establishes the effective date for Parts A to E of the legislation as July 1, 2019. Other dates throughout the legislation are revised from an original proposed effective date of January 1, 2019 to July 1, 2019.
Part G directs the Probate and Trust Law Advisory Commission, in consultation with the Family Law Advisory Commission, to develop Maine Uniform Probate Code Comments to accompany the statutory provisions of this legislation. The recommended comments must be submitted to the joint standing committee of the 129th Legislature having jurisdiction over judiciary matters no later than January 15, 2019. That committee is given authority to report out legislation to fix any errors and inconsistencies created by recent legislation and this legislation and to address other issues related to the recodification and revision of the Maine Probate Code. Part G takes effect 90 days after the Second Regular Session of the 128th Legislature adjourns.